how should a nurse respond to a patient who is experiencing confusion after surgery
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient who is experiencing confusion after surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate initial response to a patient experiencing confusion after surgery. Confusion can be a sign of hypoxia, which is inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Administering oxygen helps ensure that the patient is getting enough oxygen, addressing a potential cause of the confusion. Repositioning the patient, encouraging deep breathing exercises, or performing a neurological exam may be necessary depending on the situation, but addressing potential hypoxia should be the priority in a confused post-operative patient.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is a common finding in clients with hypothyroidism because of the decreased metabolic rate associated with this condition. Weight gain is also a common symptom of hypothyroidism due to the metabolic changes, making choice A incorrect. Tachycardia, or a rapid heart rate, is typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism, so choice C is incorrect. Heat intolerance is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism rather than hypothyroidism, making choice D incorrect.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods when taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges can help maintain adequate potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products. Choice C is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, the general instruction is not to limit fluids to prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually best taken during the day to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Educating the patient on the importance of medication is crucial when dealing with a patient who is non-compliant with their hypertension medication. By providing information about the significance of the medication in controlling blood pressure and preventing complications, the patient may be more motivated to adhere to the prescribed treatment. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (choice B) may lead to further deterioration of the patient's condition if non-compliance continues. Referring the patient to a specialist (choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should be preceded by efforts to improve compliance. Discontinuing the medication (choice D) without addressing the non-compliance issue can have serious health consequences for the patient.

5. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

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