Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient who is experiencing confusion after surgery?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Encourage deep breathing exercises
• D. Perform a neurological exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate initial response to a patient experiencing confusion after surgery. Confusion can be a sign of hypoxia, which is inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Administering oxygen helps ensure that the patient is getting enough oxygen, addressing a potential cause of the confusion. Repositioning the patient, encouraging deep breathing exercises, or performing a neurological exam may be necessary depending on the situation, but addressing potential hypoxia should be the priority in a confused post-operative patient.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride at 4 mcg/kg/min for a client weighing 80 kg. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 6 mL/hr
• B. 8 mL/hr
• C. 12 mL/hr
• D. 16 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate, you first need to convert the weight to micrograms: 4 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg = 320 mcg/min. Then, convert micrograms to milligrams: 320 mcg/min / 1000 = 0.32 mg/min. Next, calculate how many milligrams per hour: 0.32 mg/min * 60 min/hr = 19.2 mg/hr. Finally, determine the mL/hr rate by using the concentration provided: 19.2 mg/hr / 800 mg in 250 mL = 6 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 mL/hr. Choice B, 8 mL/hr, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the weight and drug concentration. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 16 mL/hr, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation of the infusion rate for dopamine hydrochloride based on the client's weight and the medication concentration.

3. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Do not discontinue this medication suddenly.
• B. Take this medication in the evening to decrease the risk of falls.
• C. Monitor your heart rate before taking this medication.
• D. Avoid grapefruit juice while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metoprolol is to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate), so it is essential for clients to check their heart rate before each dose. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to adverse effects, so it should not be discontinued suddenly. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metoprolol at night to reduce falls. Choice D is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with metoprolol, affecting its absorption, and should be avoided.

4. What is the best method to assess for fluid overload in patients with heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Check for jugular vein distention
• C. Check for pitting edema
• D. Check for fluid retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate method to assess fluid overload in patients with heart failure. Changes in weight can indicate fluid retention before visible signs like jugular vein distention or pitting edema appear. Checking for jugular vein distention (choice B) is helpful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring. Pitting edema (choice C) and fluid retention (choice D) are signs of fluid overload, but daily weight monitoring is a more proactive approach to detect changes early.

5. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
• B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
• C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

Similar Questions