Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient who is refusing medication?

• A. Assess the reasons for refusal
• B. Explore alternative treatment options
• C. Document the refusal
• D. Discontinue the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient refuses medication, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the reasons for refusal. This allows the provider to understand the patient's concerns, provide education or clarification if needed, and work collaboratively with the patient to find a solution. Exploring alternative treatment options may be necessary after understanding the reasons behind the refusal. Documenting the refusal is important for legal and continuity of care purposes, but it is not the initial action to take. Discontinuing the medication without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to potential harm and is not a recommended approach.

2. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection. Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is required?

• A. I can visit someone with chickenpox 5 days after the sores crust.
• B. I should avoid eating foods that contain high folic acid.
• C. I can clean my cat's litter box during pregnancy.
• D. I should wash my hands with hot water for 10 seconds after gardening.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cleaning a cat's litter box during pregnancy can increase the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is correct as the statement indicates understanding of the chickenpox transmission timeline. Choice B is also correct as high folic acid foods are beneficial during pregnancy. Choice D is correct as washing hands with hot water after gardening helps prevent infections.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Low back pain
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Tachycardia can indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction, a severe and life-threatening complication of blood transfusion. The nurse should report tachycardia immediately to prevent further complications. Low back pain, flushed skin, and headache are also important to monitor during a blood transfusion, but they are not as indicative of a severe transfusion reaction as tachycardia.

5. What is the best intervention for a patient with constipation?

• A. Administer a stool softener
• B. Encourage fluid intake
• C. Provide a high-fiber diet
• D. Administer a laxative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging fluid intake is the best intervention for a patient with constipation. Fluids help soften stools, making them easier to pass. While stool softeners and laxatives can also help with constipation, they are more of a short-term solution and may not address the root cause. A high-fiber diet is beneficial for preventing constipation in the long run, but in the immediate situation of constipation, fluid intake is key.

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