Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient who is refusing medication?

• A. Assess the reasons for refusal
• B. Explore alternative treatment options
• C. Document the refusal
• D. Discontinue the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient refuses medication, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the reasons for refusal. This allows the provider to understand the patient's concerns, provide education or clarification if needed, and work collaboratively with the patient to find a solution. Exploring alternative treatment options may be necessary after understanding the reasons behind the refusal. Documenting the refusal is important for legal and continuity of care purposes, but it is not the initial action to take. Discontinuing the medication without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to potential harm and is not a recommended approach.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess for infection in a patient post-surgery?

• A. Check the surgical site
• B. Check for fever
• C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
• D. Check the patient's skin color

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for infection in a patient post-surgery, checking the surgical site is crucial. Changes in the appearance of the surgical site, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage, can indicate an infection. While checking for fever (Choice B) is also important as it can be a sign of infection, it is a more general symptom and may not always be present. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice C) and skin color (Choice D) are not typically direct indicators of infection in a post-surgery patient.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate of 20/min
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• C. Heart rate of 88/min
• D. Oxygen saturation of 94%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 88/min is a normal finding; therefore, it does not require immediate reporting to the provider. The respiratory rate of 20/min, blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation of 94% are also within normal ranges and do not indicate any immediate concerns. However, a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can be a serious issue and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Dilated pupils.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

5. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

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