Nursing Elites

1. How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?

• A. Checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement
• B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine output
• C. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema
• D. Measuring the patient's heart rate and lung sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.

2. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

3. A client with HIV-1 starting therapy with ritonavir and zidovudine asks why both medications are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Taking two medications ensures a faster recovery.
• B. The medications work best together to improve your immune system.
• C. Taking the 2 medications together keeps you from becoming resistant to either of them.
• D. These medications target different parts of the virus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking two medications together helps prevent the development of drug resistance in HIV treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of combination therapy is not necessarily a faster recovery. Choice B is incorrect as the main purpose of combining medications in HIV treatment is to prevent resistance rather than improving the immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while it is true that the medications may target different parts of the virus, the main reason for using both together is to prevent resistance.

4. A nurse is assessing the skin of an immobilized patient. What will the nurse do?

• A. Use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale.
• B. Limit the amount of fluid intake.
• C. Have special times for inspection so as not to interrupt routine care.
• D. Assess the skin every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale to identify patients at high risk for impaired skin integrity. This tool helps in early identification and appropriate intervention. Choice B, limiting fluid intake, is not directly related to skin assessment. Choice C, having special times for inspection, may not ensure timely identification of skin issues. Choice D, assessing the skin every 4 hours, lacks specificity regarding the use of a validated tool for risk assessment.

5. Which of the following is an example of professional negligence?

• A. Following facility guidelines at all times
• B. Using equipment in a knowledgeable manner
• C. Communicating effectively with clients
• D. Documenting client interactions accurately

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Professional negligence involves failing to meet the standard of care expected in a particular profession, which can lead to harm. In this case, not following facility guidelines can result in lapses in safety or quality of care, potentially causing harm to clients. Choices B, C, and D all represent essential aspects of professional conduct and do not directly relate to negligence.

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