Nursing Elites

1. How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?

• A. Checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement
• B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine output
• C. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema
• D. Measuring the patient's heart rate and lung sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.

2. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• B. Hyoscyamine
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Phenazopyridine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.

3. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. Which of the following interventions by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?

• A. Design interventions for a student's individual education plan (IEP).
• B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
• C. Perform first aid for minor injuries.
• D. Perform scoliosis screenings for students.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching students about healthy food choices is a primary prevention strategy that aims to prevent future health issues by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice A, designing interventions for an individual education plan (IEP), is more related to addressing specific educational needs rather than preventing health issues. Choice C, performing first aid for minor injuries, is a form of secondary prevention aimed at reducing the impact of existing health problems. Choice D, performing scoliosis screenings for students, falls under secondary prevention by detecting health issues early rather than preventing them.

4. When is removal of the restraints by the nurse appropriate?

• A. When medication that has been administered has taken effect
• B. When no acts of aggression are observed in the hour following the release of two extremity restraints
• C. When the nurse explores with the client the reasons for the angry and aggressive behavior
• D. When the client apologizes and tells the nurse that it will never happen again

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse can safely remove restraints once no aggressive behavior is observed after releasing two extremity restraints for an hour. Choice A is incorrect because the removal of restraints should be based on the client's behavior rather than just the effect of medication. Choice C is incorrect as exploring reasons for aggressive behavior should be done before or during the intervention, not as a condition for removing restraints. Choice D is incorrect since an apology from the client does not guarantee a change in behavior or indicate that it is safe to remove the restraints.

5. A school nurse is developing a teaching plan about testicular cancer for a group of clients. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Perform a testicular self-examination weekly.
• B. Do not palpate the epididymis when performing a testicular self-examination.
• C. Expect testicles to be uniform in consistency when performing a testicular self-examination.
• D. Perform a testicular self-examination after a cool shower.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because testicles should be uniform in consistency when performing a self-exam, and any lumps or abnormalities should be reported. Choice A is incorrect as testicular self-examinations should be performed monthly, not weekly. Choice B is incorrect because the epididymis should be included in the examination. Choice D is incorrect because a warm shower helps relax the scrotum, making the exam easier to perform.

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