Nursing Elites

1. How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?

• A. Checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement
• B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine output
• C. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema
• D. Measuring the patient's heart rate and lung sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.

2. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake for 4 hours following the procedure
• B. Apply cold compresses to the puncture site after the procedure
• C. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake after the procedure
• D. Keep the client in a prone position for 12 hours after the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to include in caring for a client scheduled for a lumbar puncture is to instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake after the procedure. Increasing oral fluid intake helps replace cerebrospinal fluid lost during the lumbar puncture and reduces the risk of headaches. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) is not necessary after a lumbar puncture. Keeping the client in a prone position for 12 hours (Choice D) is not required after a lumbar puncture and can cause discomfort and complications.

3. What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics, and how should they be managed?

• A. Drowsiness and dizziness, ensuring safety precautions
• B. Respiratory depression, ensuring adequate ventilation
• C. Constipation and nausea, managed with stool softeners
• D. Nausea and vomiting, managing with antiemetics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Common side effects of opioid analgesics include drowsiness and dizziness. These side effects can impair a person's ability to operate machinery or drive safely. To manage these side effects, it is essential to advise patients to avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because respiratory depression, constipation, and nausea are also common side effects of opioids, but they are not the primary side effects being asked for in this question.

4. A patient requires assistance to stand from a sitting position. Which action by the nurse ensures patient safety?

• A. Allow the patient to pull up on the nurse's arm.
• B. Place a gait belt around the patient for support.
• C. Have the patient push off the chair with their hands.
• D. Ask the patient to lift themselves up without support.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Placing a gait belt around the patient for support is the safest option when assisting a patient to stand from a sitting position. This belt provides stability and support, reducing the risk of falls or injuries during the transfer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Allowing the patient to pull up on the nurse's arm (Choice A) may lead to instability and compromise safety. Having the patient push off the chair with their hands (Choice C) might not provide sufficient support, especially for patients who require assistance. Asking the patient to lift themselves up without support (Choice D) can be dangerous and increase the risk of falls.

5. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client with chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. A client with a fever of 100°F
• C. A client scheduled for surgery
• D. A client with stable vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

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