ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
- A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
- B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
- C. Diazepam
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with pneumonia. Which finding is most concerning?
- A. Fever of 101°F.
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg.
- C. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute.
- D. Crackles heard in the lung bases.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Crackles heard in the lung bases are most concerning in a patient with pneumonia as they suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating possible severe infection or respiratory distress. Prompt intervention is required to prevent further complications.\n\nChoice A, fever of 101°F, is common in infections like pneumonia but may not be as immediately concerning as crackles indicating fluid in the lungs.\n\nChoice B, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, is within normal limits and not directly indicative of pneumonia severity.\n\nChoice C, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, is slightly elevated but not as critical as crackles suggesting fluid in the lungs.
3. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?
- A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
- B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
- C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
- D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin clavulanate to treat pharyngitis. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. I will double my dose if I miss one
- B. I should take this medication on an empty stomach between meals
- C. I will take the medication until my sore throat goes away
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I develop itching
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client should never double the dose if a dose is missed. This can lead to an overdose, which can cause serious adverse effects. Instead, the client should take the next dose as scheduled or consult the provider for guidance.
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