a nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the controlled substances act which of the following medication
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ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

2. A nurse is performing a pain assessment for a client who is alert. The nurse should recognize that which of the following measures is the most reliable indicator of pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Self-report of pain. Pain is a subjective experience, and the most reliable way to assess it is through the client's self-report. While nonverbal behaviors and vital signs can provide additional information, they are not as reliable as the client's own report of pain. The severity of the condition may influence the experience of pain but is not a direct indicator of the client's pain level.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter and a prescription for a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to withdraw 3 to 5 ml of urine from the port for an accurate culture and sensitivity test. Wiping the area around the needleless port with sterile water (Choice A) is not necessary when obtaining a urine specimen. Inserting the syringe into the needleless port at a 60-degree angle (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not align with the correct procedure for obtaining a urine specimen. Donning sterile gloves (Choice D) is a good practice but not the immediate action required for obtaining a urine specimen.

4. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

5. A client undergoing chemotherapy expresses concern about hair loss. What should the nurse suggest?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing wigs and other coping resources helps clients manage the emotional effects of chemotherapy-related hair loss. Encouraging the client to cut their hair short before chemotherapy (Choice A) is not necessary as hair loss may still occur. Assuring the client that hair loss will be minimal (Choice C) may provide false hope as hair loss is a common side effect of chemotherapy. Offering medication to reduce hair loss (Choice D) is not a typical approach as chemotherapy-related hair loss is often an expected side effect that cannot be entirely prevented with medication.

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