Nursing Elites

1. Factors that may contribute to workplace violence in a health care setting include:

• A. Lack of armed security
• B. Continuous loud noises and/or poorly monitored entrances
• C. Poor staff interactions
• D. Tense shoulders and clenched fists

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Continuous loud noises and poorly monitored entrances can contribute to workplace violence by creating a chaotic environment that can escalate tensions. Factors like lack of armed security (choice A) may not be as significant in triggering violence as environmental factors. Poor staff interactions (choice C) can contribute to a negative work culture but may not directly lead to violence. Tense shoulders and clenched fists (choice D) may indicate stress or anger in an individual but are not factors that contribute to workplace violence in general.

2. A recent ethical issue has resulted in uneasiness and discomfort for several nurses on a unit. The unit manager has decided to discuss the issues at the next team meeting. The situation has resulted in which of the following for some of the nurses?

• A. Moral suffering
• B. Moral distress
• C. Ethical dilemma
• D. Veracity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, moral distress. Moral distress occurs when one knows the ethically correct action to take but feels constrained in their ability to take that action due to institutional, hierarchical, or other constraints. In this scenario, the nurses are experiencing uneasiness and discomfort due to an ethical issue, which aligns with the definition of moral distress. Choice A, moral suffering, is not the most appropriate term in this context as moral distress better describes the situation. Choice C, ethical dilemma, refers to a situation where a person is faced with two equally undesirable alternatives, which does not fully capture the nurses' current experience. Choice D, veracity, is unrelated to the nurses' situation and does not fit the context of the scenario.

3. What is the main purpose of a clinical audit?

• A. To measure patient satisfaction
• B. To evaluate the effectiveness of clinical practices
• C. To identify areas for improvement
• D. To standardize patient care protocols

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas for improvement in clinical practices. While patient satisfaction might be a component evaluated during an audit, the primary goal is to ensure that care is safe, effective, and patient-centered, rather than solely focusing on satisfaction. Evaluating the effectiveness of clinical practices is a related but more specific goal compared to the broader aim of identifying areas for improvement. Standardizing patient care protocols can be a result of a clinical audit, but it is not the main purpose, which is to pinpoint areas needing enhancement.

4. Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?

• A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
• B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so.
• C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions.
• D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client�s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.

5. The healthcare provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a 50-year-old patient whose 6:00 AM blood glucose is 230 mg/dL. Which action will the nurse teach the patient to take?

• A. Avoid snacking at bedtime.
• B. Increase the rapid-acting insulin dose.
• C. Check the blood glucose during the night.
• D. Administer a larger dose of long-acting insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Somogyi effect, also known as rebound hyperglycemia, occurs due to an excessive insulin dose at night, leading to hypoglycemia in the early morning hours. To address this, the nurse should instruct the patient to check their blood glucose during the night to determine if hypoglycemia is present, which triggers the rebound hyperglycemia. By monitoring blood glucose levels during the night, the patient can identify if adjustments are needed to prevent this phenomenon and maintain stable glucose levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding snacking at bedtime, increasing rapid-acting insulin dose, or administering a larger dose of long-acting insulin are not appropriate actions to manage the Somogyi effect. Checking blood glucose during the night is crucial to identify and prevent the rebound hyperglycemia characteristic of this phenomenon.

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