factors that may contribute to workplace violence in a health care setting include
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ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Factors that may contribute to workplace violence in a health care setting include:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Continuous loud noises and poorly monitored entrances can contribute to workplace violence by creating a chaotic environment that can escalate tensions. Factors like lack of armed security (choice A) may not be as significant in triggering violence as environmental factors. Poor staff interactions (choice C) can contribute to a negative work culture but may not directly lead to violence. Tense shoulders and clenched fists (choice D) may indicate stress or anger in an individual but are not factors that contribute to workplace violence in general.

2. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL (hypoglycemia) needs immediate attention. Hypoglycemia is an emergency situation that requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse effects such as seizures or loss of consciousness. Assessing and managing this patient first is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening situations requiring urgent intervention like severe hypoglycemia does. While a high hemoglobin A1C level (choice A), an abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result (choice C), and acute abdominal pain (choice D) are important issues, they do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life compared to severe hypoglycemia.

3. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

4. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

5. The staff on a medical-surgical unit is in conflict with the occupational therapy department. What type of communication will be used to discuss the problems?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lateral communication. Lateral communication occurs between individuals or departments of the same hierarchical level, making it suitable for addressing conflicts between the staff on a medical-surgical unit and the occupational therapy department. Upward communication involves communication from staff to management or from lower management to middle or upper management. Downward communication is typically directive communication from an authority figure or manager to staff. Distorted communication is not a recognized type of communication and does not apply to this scenario.

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