ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam
1. Each of the following is a function of vitamin A, except one. Which is the exception?
- A. Prevention of night blindness
- B. Growth of soft tissues and bone
- C. Maintenance of more than 200 genes
- D. Integrity of body openings and their linings
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Maintenance of more than 200 genes is not a function of vitamin A; instead, it is a function of Vitamin D. Vitamin A plays a crucial role in the prevention of night blindness by aiding in the production of the visual pigment rhodopsin. It also supports the growth of soft tissues and bone, as well as the integrity of body openings and their linings. Choice C is incorrect because the maintenance of genes is primarily associated with Vitamin D, not Vitamin A.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with a thiamine deficiency. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect?
- A. Tachycardia, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination
- B. Swollen lips, cracks in the corners of the mouth, and glossitis
- C. Neuropsychiatric symptoms of delusions and hallucinations
- D. Scaly rash on arms, dementia, and diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thiamine deficiency, also known as Vitamin B1 deficiency, can present with various symptoms. Tachycardia, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination are classic signs of thiamine deficiency due to its role in energy metabolism. Swollen lips, cracks in the corners of the mouth, and glossitis are more indicative of a deficiency in riboflavin (Vitamin B2). Neuropsychiatric symptoms of delusions and hallucinations are characteristic of niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency. A scaly rash on the arms, dementia, and diarrhea are not typically associated with thiamine deficiency. Therefore, the correct assessment findings for a client with thiamine deficiency are tachycardia, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.
3. A nurse is reviewing blood glucose values for a client who is at risk for Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2-hour glucose tolerance test level 150 mg/dL
- B. Fasting blood glucose 70 mg/dL
- C. Glycosylated hemoglobin 5%
- D. Casual blood glucose 90 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-hour glucose tolerance test level of 150 mg/dL is above the normal range and should be reported to the provider as it indicates impaired glucose tolerance. Choice B (Fasting blood glucose 70 mg/dL) is within the normal range. Choice C (Glycosylated hemoglobin 5%) is also within the normal range. Choice D (Casual blood glucose 90 mg/dL) is within the normal range and does not indicate impaired glucose tolerance.
4. Selective inattention is seen in which level of anxiety?
- A. Mild
- B. Moderate
- C. Severe
- D. Panic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Selective inattention is a defense mechanism seen in panic-level anxiety. In panic anxiety, individuals may experience selective inattention, where they focus only on specific aspects and ignore others. Mild anxiety does not typically involve selective inattention as individuals can still function effectively. Moderate and severe anxiety may impair attention, but selective inattention is more characteristic of panic-level anxiety.
5. A nurse provides discharge instructions to a client about the food items that interact with warfarin effectiveness. Which food item indicates that the teaching was effective?
- A. Cauliflower
- B. Zucchini
- C. Green beans
- D. Broccoli
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cauliflower is high in vitamin K, which can interact with warfarin.
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