Nursing Elites

1. What nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for a patient with heart failure?

• A. risk for infection
• B. fluid volume excess
• C. impaired body temperature
• D. ineffective airway clearance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with heart failure is 'fluid volume excess.' In heart failure, the heart's reduced pumping ability leads to fluid retention, causing an excess of fluid in the body. This can result in symptoms such as edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain. 'Risk for infection,' 'impaired body temperature,' and 'ineffective airway clearance' are not the most appropriate nursing diagnoses for a patient with heart failure as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology and common issues seen in heart failure patients.

2. Which of the following treatments is not recommended for a child classified with no dehydration?

• A. Administering 1,000 ml to 1,400 ml within 4 hours
• B. Continuing feeding
• C. Allowing the child to take as much fluid as he wants
• D. Returning the child to the doctor if the condition worsens

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Continuing feeding is a recommended treatment for a child classified with no dehydration. This helps maintain the child's nutritional status and supports recovery. Options A, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a child with no dehydration. Option A ensures adequate fluid intake, option C promotes hydration, and option D ensures appropriate follow-up if the condition worsens.

3. A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a client who has Phenylketonuria (PKU) and is planning a pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the discussion?

• A. Diet sodas should not be consumed more than two or three times a week.
• B. Serum bilirubin should be monitored once or twice a month during pregnancy.
• C. Breastfeeding will not prevent your baby from developing PKU.
• D. A low-protein diet should be followed for three months before conception.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-protein diet should be followed for three months before conception in individuals with PKU who are planning a pregnancy. This diet helps manage PKU by reducing phenylalanine levels, which is crucial for maternal and fetal health. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not directly related to managing PKU, choice B focuses on a different aspect of care during pregnancy, and choice C is inaccurate as breastfeeding will not prevent a baby from developing PKU.

4. High intakes of which of the following interfere with copper absorption and can lead to a deficiency?

• A. chromium
• B. sodium
• C. zinc
• D. manganese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, zinc. High intakes of zinc can interfere with copper absorption, potentially leading to copper deficiency. Copper is essential for various bodily functions, including iron metabolism. Choice A, chromium, is incorrect because chromium does not interfere with copper absorption. Choice B, sodium, and Choice D, manganese, are also incorrect as they do not interfere with copper absorption.

5. Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome are most likely associated with disturbed defecation, bloating, and _____.

• A. rectal bleeding
• B. abdominal pain
• C. rectal fissures
• D. esophageal paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abdominal pain is a common symptom of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), along with bloating and changes in bowel habits. Rectal bleeding (choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Rectal fissures (choice C) may cause rectal bleeding but are not typically considered a core symptom of IBS. Esophageal paralysis (choice D) is unrelated to the symptoms of IBS, which primarily affect the lower gastrointestinal tract.

Similar Questions