Nursing Elites

1. During early tooth development, vitamin A deficiency leads to enamel hypoplasia and defective dentin formation. Because of its effect on soft tissues and bone, vitamin A contributes to normal spacing of teeth.

• A. Both statements are true.
• B. Both statements are false.
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false.
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Both statements are true. The effect of vitamin A on the growth of soft tissues and bones naturally extends to the teeth and surrounding structures. Enamel hypoplasia, involving defective enamel matrix and incomplete calcification of enamel and dentin, can be due to vitamin A deficiency. The effect of this vitamin upon surrounding bone directly affects spacing patterns of the teeth within the bone and dentition. Choice A is correct because both statements accurately describe the influence of vitamin A on tooth development. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accuracy of the statements provided.

2. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

3. Which team member works with the client to evaluate the need for special feeding devices and then teaches the client how to use the device?

• A. dietitian
• B. speech-language pathologist
• C. dietetic technician
• D. occupational therapist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An occupational therapist is the team member who works with the client to evaluate the need for special feeding devices and teaches the client how to use them. Occupational therapists specialize in helping individuals with physical or cognitive impairments to perform daily activities. In this scenario, the need for special feeding devices may be due to impaired motor function or disability, making the occupational therapist the correct choice. The other options, dietitian, speech-language pathologist, and dietetic technician, do not typically specialize in evaluating the need for feeding devices or teaching clients how to use them.

4. A nurse is teaching an in-service about manifestations of hypoglycemia to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Blurred vision
• B. Vomiting
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a common symptom of hypoglycemia and should be included in the teaching. Other manifestations like vomiting, Kussmaul respirations, and bradycardia are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Vomiting is more commonly seen in conditions like food poisoning or gastrointestinal issues. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid respirations seen in metabolic acidosis, not hypoglycemia. Bradycardia is usually not a manifestation of hypoglycemia; tachycardia is more commonly associated with low blood sugar levels.

5. Sam is trying to lose weight by skipping lunch. By the middle of the afternoon, Sam is very uncomfortable and feels that they "have" to eat. Sam is experiencing:

• A. appetite
• B. satiety
• C. satiation
• D. hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hunger is the physiological need to eat, which Sam is experiencing due to skipping a meal and the body signaling the need for nutrients.

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