Nursing Elites

1. Cultural diversity presents an important challenge to nurse managers due to which of the following?

• A. A nursing shortage exists
• B. Staff nurses are not trained to be culturally sensitive
• C. 80% of nursing staff comes from one or more minority groups
• D. The increase in cultural diversity is seen both in the patient population and the nursing staff

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cultural diversity presents an important challenge to nurse managers due to the increase in cultural diversity seen both in the patient population and the nursing staff. This challenge requires nurse managers to ensure that their nursing staff can effectively communicate and provide culturally competent care to patients from diverse backgrounds. Choice A is incorrect because it does not directly relate to the impact of cultural diversity. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the training of staff nurses rather than the overall challenge of managing cultural diversity. Choice C is incorrect as the percentage of nursing staff from minority groups, while important, is not the primary reason cultural diversity poses a challenge to nurse managers.

2. Which of the following best describes the concept of shared governance?

• A. Top-down management
• B. Nurse-led committees
• C. Shared decision making
• D. Hierarchical structure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Shared decision making.' Shared governance in healthcare involves empowering nurses to participate in decision-making processes that affect their practice. This model fosters collaboration, transparency, and accountability among healthcare providers. Choice A, 'Top-down management,' is incorrect because shared governance promotes a bottom-up approach. Choice B, 'Nurse-led committees,' is partially correct as it is a component of shared governance, but the core concept is broader and encompasses shared decision making beyond committee leadership. Choice D, 'Hierarchical structure,' is incorrect as shared governance aims to flatten hierarchies and distribute decision-making authority among healthcare team members.

3. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?

• A. Urine dipstick for glucose
• B. Oral glucose tolerance test
• C. Fasting blood glucose level
• D. Glycosylated hemoglobin level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, provides a long-term indicator of blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. It is a valuable tool in assessing the effectiveness of diabetes treatment because it reflects average blood sugar levels during this period. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective for evaluating long-term glucose control. Urine dipstick for glucose only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing, oral glucose tolerance test evaluates how the body processes glucose after drinking a sugary solution, and fasting blood glucose level gives a point-in-time measurement of glucose levels after fasting, but they do not reflect the overall glucose control over several months.

4. While caring for a client with tuberculosis, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene.
• B. Wear a surgical mask when providing client care.
• C. Limit each visitor to 2-hour increments.
• D. Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with tuberculosis is to use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene. Tuberculosis is primarily spread through the air, so wearing a surgical mask when providing care (choice B) would be more appropriate for diseases transmitted via droplets. Limiting visitors (choice C) and wearing gloves for oral care (choice D) are important infection control measures but are not specifically tailored to tuberculosis transmission.

5. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering childhood vaccinations
• B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
• C. Routine screening for hypertension
• D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

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