Nursing Elites

1. An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia is to

• A. provide a diet high in vitamin K
• B. alternate periods of rest and activity
• C. teach the patient how to avoid injury
• D. place the patient on protective isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In severe hemolytic anemia, the priority nursing intervention is to alternate periods of rest and activity. This approach helps to balance activity levels to prevent excessive fatigue while promoting mobility and preventing complications such as muscle weakness or deconditioning. Providing a diet high in vitamin K (choice A) is not directly related to managing hemolytic anemia. Teaching the patient how to avoid injury (choice C) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Placing the patient on protective isolation (choice D) is not indicated for hemolytic anemia, as it is not a contagious condition.

2. A patient in the emergency department complains of back pain and difficulty breathing 15 minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is started. The nurse's first action should be to

• A. administer oxygen therapy at a high flow rate
• B. obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory
• C. notify the healthcare provider about the symptoms
• D. disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, back pain, and difficulty breathing after the transfusion indicate a possible acute hemolytic reaction, a severe transfusion reaction. The priority action in this situation is to discontinue the transfusion immediately to prevent further complications. Infusing normal saline helps maintain the patient's intravascular volume and prevent renal damage. Administering oxygen or obtaining a urine specimen is not the most urgent action and could delay essential treatment. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but should come after ensuring the patient's safety by stopping the blood transfusion.

3. The nurse assesses a patient with pernicious anemia. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Yellow-tinged sclerae
• B. Shiny, smooth tongue
• C. Numbness of the extremities
• D. Gum bleeding and tenderness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Numbness of the extremities. Numbness of the extremities is a common finding in patients with pernicious anemia, which is caused by cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency. This deficiency affects the peripheral nervous system, leading to neurological symptoms like numbness and tingling in the extremities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Yellow-tinged sclerae is more indicative of jaundice or liver dysfunction, a shiny smooth tongue is seen in conditions like glossitis, and gum bleeding and tenderness are associated with periodontal disease or vitamin C deficiency, not pernicious anemia.

4. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient post-coronary artery bypass graft procedure who is on a nitroglycerin intravenous drip. The nurse understands the importance of nitroglycerin with this procedure as:

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply.
• B. Increasing preload.
• C. Decreasing cardiac output.
• D. Decreasing afterload.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing afterload, which is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole. By reducing afterload, nitroglycerin helps the heart pump more effectively and decreases the workload on the heart. This results in improved cardiac output and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease myocardial oxygen supply, increase preload, or decrease cardiac output.

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