ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. A patient who had a total hip replacement had an intraoperative hemorrhage 14 hours ago. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect?
- A. Hematocrit of 46%
- B. Hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL
- C. Elevated reticulocyte count
- D. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated reticulocyte count. Hemorrhage leads to the release of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) from the bone marrow into circulation as a compensatory mechanism to replenish lost red blood cells. This response helps in restoring the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Choices A and B, hematocrit of 46% and hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL, may not reflect the immediate response to hemorrhage within 14 hours. Choice D, decreased white blood cell (WBC) count, is not directly related to the body's response to hemorrhage.
2. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
- A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
- D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.
3. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.
4. The nurse reviews the laboratory test results of a patient admitted with abdominal pain. Which information will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?
- A. Monocytes 4%
- B. Hemoglobin 13.6 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 168,000/μL
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count 15,500/μL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A low percentage of monocytes can indicate a viral infection. This is crucial information to communicate as it suggests a specific type of infection that may require targeted treatment. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to an infectious process and are within normal ranges, so they are not as urgent to communicate to the healthcare provider in this context.
5. A patient is considering options to manage his/her coronary artery disease. The nurse explains a coronary artery bypass graft procedure will:
- A. Cure the patient's coronary artery disease.
- B. Replace the leaking valve in the heart.
- C. Connect grafts to aorta to improve blood flow.
- D. Place a permanent pacemaker on the heart muscle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A coronary artery bypass graft procedure involves connecting grafts to the aorta to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries. This procedure does not cure coronary artery disease but helps improve blood supply to the heart. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bypass graft procedure does not cure the underlying disease, replace heart valves, or involve the placement of a pacemaker.
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