Nursing Elites

1. A patient who had a total hip replacement had an intraoperative hemorrhage 14 hours ago. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect?

• A. Hematocrit of 46%
• B. Hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL
• C. Elevated reticulocyte count
• D. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated reticulocyte count. Hemorrhage leads to the release of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) from the bone marrow into circulation as a compensatory mechanism to replenish lost red blood cells. This response helps in restoring the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Choices A and B, hematocrit of 46% and hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL, may not reflect the immediate response to hemorrhage within 14 hours. Choice D, decreased white blood cell (WBC) count, is not directly related to the body's response to hemorrhage.

2. A patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin is scheduled for the following diagnostic tests. The nurse will provide a consent form to sign for which test?

• A. Bone marrow biopsy
• B. Abdominal ultrasound
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin, a bone marrow biopsy is usually indicated to determine the cause. A bone marrow biopsy is a minor surgical procedure that requires the patient or guardian to sign a surgical consent form. Abdominal ultrasound (Choice B) is not typically used to diagnose pancytopenia. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice C) is a routine blood test and does not require a specific consent form. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (Choice D) is a coagulation test and not typically performed to diagnose pancytopenia.

3. Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse’s teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?

• A. Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling.
• B. There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling.
• C. Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis.
• D. Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered.

4. A healthcare provider reviews the laboratory data for an older patient. The healthcare provider would be most concerned about which finding?

• A. Hematocrit of 35%
• B. Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 400,000/μL
• D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/μL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low white blood cell (WBC) count in an older patient is concerning as it indicates a potential compromise in the patient's immune function. White blood cells are crucial for fighting infections and a low count could lead to an increased risk of infections. Hematocrit, hemoglobin, and platelet count are important parameters to assess, but a low WBC count takes priority in this case due to its direct impact on immune health.

5. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

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