a postoperative patient receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells develops chills fever headache and anxiety 35 minutes after the transfusion
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Perfusion Quizlet

1. A postoperative patient receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells develops chills, fever, headache, and anxiety 35 minutes after the transfusion is started. After stopping the transfusion, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient’s clinical manifestations are consistent with a febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped and antipyretics administered for the fever as ordered.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Wash hands regularly and avoid individuals who are ill.' After a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection, particularly from gram-positive bacteria. Proper hand hygiene and avoiding contact with sick individuals are crucial to prevent infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because checking for swollen lymph nodes, watching for excessive bleeding or bruising, and taking iron supplements are not specifically related to the increased infection risk post-splenectomy.

3. A 62-year-old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patient's laboratory test findings to include

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In chronic anemia, the hematocrit (Hct) value is a crucial indicator of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. A hematocrit value of 38% indicates a lower than normal level of red blood cells, which aligns with the patient's symptoms of fatigue and palpitations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low RBC count, normal RBC indices, and a hemoglobin level of 8.6 g/dL do not specifically address the decreased red blood cell mass associated with chronic anemia.

4. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

5. The nurse notes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. The nurse will plan to check the laboratory results for the

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: bilirubin level. Jaundice, characterized by scleral jaundice, is caused by the elevation of bilirubin levels associated with red blood cell hemolysis. Checking the bilirubin level in the laboratory results will help assess the severity of jaundice in the patient. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Schilling test is used to assess vitamin B12 absorption, gastric analysis is used to evaluate gastric function, and stool occult blood is used to detect hidden blood in the stool, which are not directly related to evaluating jaundice in a patient with hemolytic anemia.

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