Nursing Elites

1. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?

• A. Recency error
• B. Leniency error
• C. Halo error
• D. Absolute judgment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.

2. A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to

• A. use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved
• B. limit calorie intake until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL
• C. monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise
• D. decrease carbohydrate intake until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should advise the patient to monitor her blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. This is important because the patient is experiencing symptoms of an illness (sore throat and runny nose) that can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. By monitoring frequently, any significant rise in blood glucose can be detected early, enabling prompt intervention. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping glargine (Lantus) insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Choice B is incorrect as limiting calorie intake is not the appropriate immediate action for managing high blood glucose levels. Choice D is also incorrect as adjusting carbohydrate intake based on glycosylated hemoglobin levels is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

3. What is the role of a nurse in a multidisciplinary team (MDT)?

• A. To lead the MDT
• B. To provide emotional support
• C. To advocate for patient needs
• D. To conduct clinical research

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a multidisciplinary team (MDT), a nurse's role is to advocate for patient needs and ensure their perspectives are considered in the care plan. While leadership may be a part of a nurse's role in some settings, the primary focus in an MDT is collaboration and coordination. Providing emotional support is essential but may not be the primary role of a nurse in an MDT. Conducting clinical research is typically not a direct responsibility of a nurse in an MDT focused on patient care.

4. Which of the following is a recommendation for avoiding charges of negligence and false imprisonment for confused clients?

• A. Carefully assess and document client status.
• B. Ensure all patient information is secure and the nurse has logged out of the computer before leaving the computer station.
• C. Keep detailed notes while providing care to ensure accurate documentation later in the day.
• D. Discuss safety needs with clients.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Carefully assess and document client status.' When dealing with confused clients, it is crucial to assess their status carefully and document it accurately. This helps in avoiding charges of negligence and false imprisonment by ensuring that the client's condition is well-documented and appropriate care is provided. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on computer security rather than client care. Choice C is incorrect because it emphasizes detailed notes for accuracy but does not specifically address the confusion of clients. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions discussing safety needs but does not directly relate to avoiding charges of negligence and false imprisonment for confused clients.

5. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

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