which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity
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1. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.

2. Which of the following best describes the concept of evidence-based practice (EBP)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Combining clinical expertise with the best available research evidence.' Evidence-based practice (EBP) emphasizes integrating clinical expertise with the most current and relevant research evidence when making decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect because EBP does not rely solely on clinical expertise. Choice B is incorrect as EBP considers research evidence alongside clinical expertise, not as the sole basis. Choice D is incorrect because EBP is not about blindly following institutional guidelines, but rather about integrating research evidence with clinical judgment to provide the best possible care.

3. Characteristics that an interviewer will be most interested in when selecting a new staff will be: (EXCEPT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When selecting new staff, interviewers are primarily interested in candidates' confidence in clinical skills, ability to work as a team member, and clinical competence. They are not concerned with how many hours of overtime a candidate is willing to work. Overtime hours may be important at times, but it is not a characteristic that an interviewer would prioritize when selecting new staff. Choices A, C, and D are essential qualities that interviewers look for in potential staff as they contribute to providing professional nursing care.

4. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.

5. How does decision making differ from problem solving?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because decision making always involves selecting from a set of alternatives, while problem solving involves diagnosing a problem. Option B is incorrect as problem solving involves diagnosing a problem rather than selecting one of several alternatives. Option C is incorrect because decision making is often a part of problem-solving processes. Option D is incorrect as decision making may involve selecting from alternatives, not necessarily solving a problem.

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