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1. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?
- A. Administering immunizations
- B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
- C. Routine health screenings
- D. Health education campaigns
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.
2. Which finding indicates a need to contact the health care provider before the nurse administers metformin (Glucophage)?
- A. The patient�s blood glucose level is 174 mg/dL.
- B. The patient has gained 2 lb (0.9 kg) since yesterday.
- C. The patient is scheduled for a chest x-ray in an hour
- D. The patient�s blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 52 mg/dL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
3. The Hawthorne effect explains that the relationship between people and productivity is enhanced by which of the following?
- A. Special attention
- B. Organizations
- C. Creativity
- D. Groups
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Hawthorne effect is a term used to describe how people modify their behavior in response to the attention they are receiving rather than the manipulation of variables. Special attention, as mentioned in choice A, is the correct answer because when individuals feel that they are being closely monitored or that special interest is being taken in them, they tend to perform better or change their behavior. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Hawthorne effect specifically focuses on the impact of attention and not on organizational structures, creativity, or group dynamics.
4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?
- A. Perceived conflict
- B. Disruptive conflict
- C. Competitive conflict
- D. Felt conflict
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.
5. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse case manager?
- A. To provide direct patient care
- B. To manage healthcare facilities
- C. To advocate for patient rights
- D. To coordinate long-term care services
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'To coordinate long-term care services.' A nurse case manager's primary role is to coordinate and manage long-term care services for patients, ensuring continuity and quality of care. Choice A is incorrect because providing direct patient care is typically the responsibility of nurses, not nurse case managers. Choice B is incorrect as managing healthcare facilities is a role usually fulfilled by healthcare administrators. Choice C is incorrect as advocating for patient rights is important but not the primary role of a nurse case manager.
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