Nursing Elites

1. How did the Social Security Act of 1935 impact public health nursing?

• A. Disabled children
• B. Mentally disabled
• C. Older adults
• D. Opioid addicts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Social Security Act of 1935 impacted public health nursing by containing provisions for care for disabled children. This helped in improving the health and well-being of this vulnerable population. The Act did not specifically address care for mentally disabled individuals, older adults, or opioid addicts. Therefore, the correct answer is disabled children.

2. Characteristics that an interviewer will be most interested in when selecting a new staff will be: (EXCEPT)

• A. Your confidence in your clinical skills.
• B. How many hours of overtime you will work.
• C. Your ability to work as a team member.
• D. Your clinical competence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When selecting new staff, interviewers are primarily interested in candidates' confidence in clinical skills, ability to work as a team member, and clinical competence. They are not concerned with how many hours of overtime a candidate is willing to work. Overtime hours may be important at times, but it is not a characteristic that an interviewer would prioritize when selecting new staff. Choices A, C, and D are essential qualities that interviewers look for in potential staff as they contribute to providing professional nursing care.

3. Which of the following indicators is viewed as important by the nurse manager in relation to a performance model?

• A. Patient outcomes
• B. Rapport with staff
• C. Daily job performance
• D. Flexibility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Patient outcomes. In a performance model, one of the key indicators that a nurse manager would focus on is patient outcomes. Patient outcomes are a direct reflection of the quality of care provided by the staff, making it a crucial aspect of evaluating performance. Choice B, rapport with staff, though important for team dynamics, is not directly related to a performance model that primarily assesses job performance. Choice C, daily job performance, is relevant but more of an outcome rather than an indicator itself. Choice D, flexibility, is a valuable trait but not specifically highlighted in the context of a performance model.

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written goal?

• A. Goals should be vague
• B. Goals should be unrealistic
• C. Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable
• D. Goals should be easy to achieve

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable. Well-written goals should be specific and quantifiable to provide clear direction and motivation. Choice A is incorrect as goals should not be vague but rather specific. Choice B is incorrect as goals should be realistic to be attainable. Choice D is incorrect as goals should challenge individuals and not be too easy to achieve to promote growth and development.

5. Which theory views motivation as learning?

• A. Reinforcement
• B. Process
• C. Operant
• D. Conditioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Reinforcement. Reinforcement theory views motivation as learning through the association of behaviors with consequences. Choice B, Process, is too vague and does not specifically relate motivation to learning. Choice C, Operant, is a type of conditioning that focuses on voluntary behavior and its consequences, not motivation as learning. Choice D, Conditioning, is a general term that does not directly connect motivation with learning.

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