Nursing Elites

1. How did the Social Security Act of 1935 impact public health nursing?

• A. Disabled children
• B. Mentally disabled
• C. Older adults
• D. Opioid addicts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Social Security Act of 1935 impacted public health nursing by containing provisions for care for disabled children. This helped in improving the health and well-being of this vulnerable population. The Act did not specifically address care for mentally disabled individuals, older adults, or opioid addicts. Therefore, the correct answer is disabled children.

2. What is the focus of a continuous quality improvement program?

• A. Family
• B. Client
• C. Nurse
• D. Physician

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client. Continuous quality improvement programs are primarily focused on improving services and outcomes for clients or patients. While families, nurses, and physicians are essential in healthcare, in the context of quality improvement, the main focus is on enhancing the experience and results for the clients receiving care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of a continuous quality improvement program, which is to enhance client satisfaction, safety, and outcomes.

3. A client who had a stroke resulting in aphasia and dysphagia needs assistance. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath.
• B. Measure the client's BP after the nurse administers an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Test the client's swallowing ability by providing thickened liquids.
• D. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assisting the client with a partial bed bath is within the scope of practice for an assistive personnel and does not require specialized medical knowledge. Choice B involves measuring BP, which requires specific training and assessment skills that an assistive personnel may not have. Choice C involves testing swallowing ability, which should be done by a healthcare provider due to the risks involved in dysphagia. Choice D involves communication, which is crucial but should be done by someone with training in managing aphasia to ensure effective communication with the client.

4. Which of the following is a trait that was found to be common among leaders in trait theory?

• A. Communication of duties assigned
• B. Adaptability and changing priorities
• C. Order giving and decision making for a group
• D. Communication of goal direction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Communication of goal direction.' Trait theory suggests that effective leaders possess certain traits, one of which is the ability to clearly communicate the direction and goals of the group. This trait helps in aligning the efforts of the team towards a common objective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while communication, adaptability, decision-making, and order giving are important skills for leaders, the specific trait commonly associated with leaders in trait theory is the ability to communicate the direction and goals.

5. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering childhood vaccinations
• B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
• C. Routine screening for hypertension
• D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

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