in dealing with a conflict on a unit the nurse manager decides to ask one of the staff nurses who is not moving towards resolution to transfer to anot
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1. In dealing with a conflict on a unit, the nurse manager decides to ask one of the staff nurses, who is not moving towards resolution, to transfer to another unit. What tactic has the manager implemented?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Suppression. In this scenario, the nurse manager has implemented a suppression tactic by asking the staff nurse to transfer to another unit, which eliminates one of the conflicting parties from the current unit. This technique aims to resolve the conflict by physically separating the individuals involved. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Avoidance involves ignoring the conflict, withdrawal is the act of pulling out or retreating, and competition refers to a situation where one party's gain is at the expense of the other.

2. What is the focus of a continuous quality improvement program?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client. Continuous quality improvement programs are primarily focused on improving services and outcomes for clients or patients. While families, nurses, and physicians are essential in healthcare, in the context of quality improvement, the main focus is on enhancing the experience and results for the clients receiving care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of a continuous quality improvement program, which is to enhance client satisfaction, safety, and outcomes.

3. Which of the following conditions would be well suited to the use of a nursing critical pathway?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A critical pathway is designed to track a patient's progress through a specific timeline, including assessments, interventions, treatments, and outcomes. Hip replacement surgery is well suited for a nursing critical pathway because it has a defined timeline with specific interventions and treatments aimed at achieving optimal functioning. Choices A, B, and D do not typically follow a structured timeline with predetermined interventions and outcomes, making them less suitable for a critical pathway.

4. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaccination programs are considered a primary prevention strategy in public health because they aim to prevent the occurrence of diseases before they occur. Screening for diabetes (choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy that aims to detect and treat the disease early. Emergency response planning (choice C) is more focused on preparedness and response rather than preventing the initial occurrence of health issues. Chronic disease management (choice D) involves treating and controlling diseases that have already developed, making it a tertiary prevention strategy rather than primary.

5. A nurse manager who tells the staff to 'come to me with any problem' but then keeps the office door closed is using what type of communication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Intrasender conflict. Intrasender conflict happens when there is a discrepancy between verbal and nonverbal communication. In this scenario, the nurse manager's verbal message encourages staff to communicate openly, but the closed office door sends a conflicting nonverbal message, creating intrasender conflict. Metacommunication involves nonverbal behaviors like gestures or facial expressions that support or contradict verbal communication. Upward communication refers to the flow of information from staff to management or lower to upper management. Diagonal communication involves communication between individuals or departments at different hierarchical levels.

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