a tae kwon do tkd master is applying downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground the tkd maste
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. When a Tae Kwon Do (TKD) master applies downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground, which reflex is applicable to this example?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Golgi tendon reflex is the correct answer. This reflex protects the muscle and tendons from excessive force by causing the muscle to relax. In this scenario, the downward pressure applied just above the elbow joint triggers the Golgi tendon reflex, resulting in the attacker's collapse. The other options are incorrect: - The myotatic reflex (also known as the stretch reflex) is responsible for contracting a muscle in response to its stretch, not relaxing it. - The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that moves a body part away from a painful stimulus, not directly related to the scenario described. - The crossed-extensor reflex is a reflex that occurs on the opposite side of the body in response to a withdrawal reflex, which is not the case in this situation.

2. If a patient complains of dizziness, which term below best describes this feeling?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Symptom.' Dizziness is a symptom because it is a subjective experience reported by the patient. A 'contraindication' refers to a specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful. A 'sign' is an objective finding that can be observed or measured. 'Objective data' refers to measurable and observable information about a patient's condition, which is usually obtained through physical examination or diagnostic tests. Therefore, in this case, 'Symptom' is the best term to describe the patient's feeling of dizziness.

3. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.

4. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.

5. A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.

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