ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. When a Tae Kwon Do (TKD) master applies downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground, which reflex is applicable to this example?
- A. Golgi tendon reflex
- B. Myotatic reflex
- C. Withdrawal reflex
- D. Crossed-extensor reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Golgi tendon reflex is the correct answer. This reflex protects the muscle and tendons from excessive force by causing the muscle to relax. In this scenario, the downward pressure applied just above the elbow joint triggers the Golgi tendon reflex, resulting in the attacker's collapse. The other options are incorrect: - The myotatic reflex (also known as the stretch reflex) is responsible for contracting a muscle in response to its stretch, not relaxing it. - The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that moves a body part away from a painful stimulus, not directly related to the scenario described. - The crossed-extensor reflex is a reflex that occurs on the opposite side of the body in response to a withdrawal reflex, which is not the case in this situation.
2. In discussing sex hormone production with the patient, the nurse should describe that testosterone is normally secreted in response to
- A. sexual arousal.
- B. stimulation by luteinizing hormone.
- C. ACTH release by the adrenal cortex.
- D. decreased cortisol levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Testosterone production is regulated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, 'sexual arousal,' is incorrect because testosterone secretion is not directly linked to arousal but rather to hormonal stimulation. Choice C, 'ACTH release by the adrenal cortex,' is incorrect as testosterone production is not primarily regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Choice D, 'decreased cortisol levels,' is also incorrect as cortisol and testosterone are regulated by separate endocrine pathways.
3. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?
- A. Between 96% and 98%
- B. Approximately 98.5%
- C. Highly effective, but partially dependent on genetic factors
- D. Nearly 100%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
4. A college student has a TB test prior to starting the semester. The tuberculin test site is noted with a reddened, raised area. What condition will the student be diagnosed with if the chest radiograph is negative?
- A. Transmission
- B. Primary infection
- C. Latent tuberculosis
- D. Active tuberculosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: If the chest radiograph is negative despite a positive tuberculin skin test, the student will be diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection. Latent tuberculosis means the student has the TB bacteria in their body but does not feel sick and cannot spread the disease. Choice A, 'Transmission,' is incorrect as it refers to the spread of TB from person to person. Choice B, 'Primary infection,' is incorrect because primary infection occurs when a person is first infected with the TB bacteria. Choice D, 'Active tuberculosis,' is incorrect as this refers to the active form of the disease where the person feels sick and can spread TB to others.
5. What is a potential implication of multiple dark bands on the nails?
- A. They are considered a normal variant.
- B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
- C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
- D. They are associated with aging.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be a concerning sign of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer that can affect the nails. While some nail changes are considered normal variants, dark bands should not be dismissed lightly as they can indicate a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents differently, causing discoloration, thickening, or distortion of the nail without distinct dark bands. Additionally, aging can lead to various nail changes, but dark bands alone are not a common feature of normal aging.
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