Nursing Elites

1. A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Increased renal secretion
• B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
• C. Liver failure
• D. Peripheral vascular disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Liver failure impairs metabolism, leading to increased medication concentrations. When liver function is compromised, lower dosages are necessary to prevent adverse effects. Increased renal secretion is not a reason for lower medication dosages, as it primarily affects excretion rather than metabolism. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes would usually require higher dosages to achieve the desired effect. Peripheral vascular disease does not directly impact medication metabolism or dosage requirements.

2. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

3. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Epinephrine
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.

4. When educating a client with a new prescription for albuterol, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Use the inhaler every 4 hours.
• B. Shake the inhaler before use.
• C. Take a deep breath before inhaling the medication.
• D. Use a spacer when using the inhaler.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the albuterol inhaler before use is essential to ensure that the medication is evenly mixed and properly delivered when inhaled. This maximizes the effectiveness of the medication in opening the airways and relieving symptoms of bronchospasm.

5. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Increase your intake of vitamin D.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. Take this medication every other day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, it is important to increase the intake of vitamin D to help mitigate the risk of bone loss associated with the medication. Vitamin D aids in calcium absorption, supporting bone health in individuals taking Prednisone.

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