ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. While assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can't afford horseback riding lessons, how should the nurse interpret the student's reaction to her perceived problem?
- A. The problem is endangering her well-being.
- B. The problem is personally relevant to her.
- C. The problem is based on immaturity.
- D. The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the student being overly concerned about not being able to afford horseback riding lessons indicates that the problem is personally relevant to her. Psychological stressors related to self-esteem and self-image are influenced by how an individual perceives a situation or event. Adolescents, in particular, place significance on self-image and feeling entitled to experiences that other adolescents have, which can lead to distress when such desires are not met. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that the student's physical well-being is at risk. Choice C is incorrect as it simplifies the issue by attributing it solely to immaturity. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence provided that the problem is beyond the student's coping abilities.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Social inhibition
- B. Fear of criticism
- C. Desire for close relationships
- D. Fear of abandonment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with avoidant personality disorder commonly display social inhibition and a fear of criticism or rejection. While they may have a desire for close relationships, they tend to avoid them due to their fear of disapproval and negative evaluation by others. Fear of criticism (Choice B) is also a characteristic behavior seen in individuals with avoidant personality disorder. However, the primary behavior associated with this disorder is social inhibition (Choice A), where individuals tend to be reserved and avoid social interactions. Desiring close relationships (Choice C) may be present, but the fear of rejection typically prevents individuals from pursuing these relationships. Fear of abandonment (Choice D) is more commonly associated with borderline personality disorder rather than avoidant personality disorder.
3. When assessing a client experiencing severe anxiety, which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Rapid heart rate
- C. Sweating
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is experiencing severe anxiety, a rapid heart rate is a common physiological response. This increased heart rate is due to the body's fight-or-flight response, where adrenaline is released, causing the heart to beat faster. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial in assessing and managing their anxiety. Restlessness (choice A) can also be present in anxiety but is more of a behavioral manifestation rather than a physiological symptom. Sweating (choice C) can occur in anxiety, but it is not as specific or consistent as a rapid heart rate. Dry mouth (choice D) is associated with anxiety but is not as immediate or directly linked to the body's physiological response to stress as a rapid heart rate.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a patient with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage group activities to increase socialization.
- B. Provide a structured environment with limited stimuli.
- C. Allow the patient to engage in physical activities freely.
- D. Give the patient detailed and complex tasks to complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may have heightened sensitivity to stimuli and may struggle with organization and decision-making. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli can help reduce triggers and maintain a sense of control for the patient. It is essential to create a calm and predictable setting to support the individual in managing their symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect as group activities may overwhelm the patient due to increased stimuli. Choice C is not the most appropriate because unstructured physical activities may exacerbate the manic symptoms. Choice D is not recommended as detailed and complex tasks can be overwhelming and may contribute to increased stress and agitation in a manic episode.
5. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
- B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
- C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
- D. The client maintains a stable weight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.
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