Nursing Elites

1. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should not be included in the assessment?

• A. Appearance and behavior
• B. Giving advice
• C. Mood and affect
• D. Cognitive function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a mental status examination, components such as appearance and behavior, mood and affect, and cognitive function are assessed. Giving advice is not a component of a mental status examination as it focuses on evaluating the client's mental state rather than providing guidance or recommendations.

2. A client has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Chest pain
• C. Excessive worry
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with generalized anxiety disorder commonly exhibit symptoms like excessive worry, restlessness, and difficulty concentrating. Physical manifestations such as muscle tension and sleep disturbances are also prevalent. Shortness of breath and chest pain are more commonly associated with panic attacks rather than generalized anxiety disorder. Decreased appetite may be present in some cases, but excessive worry is a hallmark characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder.

3. A client is experiencing a panic attack. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Remain with the client and offer reassurance.
• B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication as prescribed.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and slowly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a panic attack, the immediate priority for the nurse is to provide support and reassurance to the client. Remaining with the client helps establish a sense of safety and trust, which can help calm the client during an episode of panic. Administering medication, encouraging physical activity, and deep breathing techniques are beneficial interventions, but offering reassurance and support should be the initial step to address the immediate emotional distress and anxiety experienced by the client.

4. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

5. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

• A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
• B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
• C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
• D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

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