Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Family therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.

2. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the delusions.
• B. Provide reality-based feedback to the client.
• C. Distract the client from the delusions.
• D. Encourage the client to discuss the delusions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions, providing reality-based feedback is considered an effective intervention to address this symptom. This approach helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not real, assisting them in managing their delusions and promoting their overall well-being. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the delusions does not help the client in distinguishing reality from delusions. Choice C is incorrect as distraction may only provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to discuss the delusions may reinforce or intensify them rather than help in managing them effectively.

4. After fasting from 10 p.m. the previous evening, a client finds out that the blood test has been canceled. The client swears at the nurse and states, 'You are incompetent!' Which is the nurse's best response?

• A. Do you believe that I was the cause of your blood test being canceled?
• B. I see that you are upset, but I feel uncomfortable when you swear at me.
• C. Have you ever thought about ways to express anger appropriately?
• D. I'll give you some space. Let me know if you need anything.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate response for the nurse is option B. By acknowledging the client's feelings and setting a boundary regarding inappropriate behavior, the nurse addresses the situation with empathy. This response demonstrates understanding of the client's emotions while also maintaining a professional standard by expressing discomfort with swearing. Option A could come off as defensive and may escalate the situation. Option C may be perceived as condescending and not immediately address the client's behavior. Option D, although offering space, does not directly address the inappropriate behavior and misses an opportunity to set a professional boundary.

5. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common side effect of olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain. Monitoring weight regularly is essential to detect and manage this side effect to prevent associated health risks such as diabetes and cardiovascular issues. Hypotension (choice B) is not a common side effect of olanzapine. Olanzapine is more likely to cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Hair loss (choice C) and hyperthyroidism (choice D) are not typically associated with olanzapine use.

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