ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is prescribed diazepam (Valium) for anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. I should take this medication only when I feel anxious.
- D. I can stop taking this medication when I feel better.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients should avoid alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the sedative effects of diazepam, leading to excessive drowsiness or respiratory depression. Choice B is correct as it reflects the need to avoid alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because diazepam is usually taken regularly, not just when feeling anxious. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be done gradually under medical supervision.
2. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Clonazepam
- C. Lithium
- D. Fluoxetine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.
3. In assessing a patient for signs of serotonin syndrome, which of the following symptoms would be consistent with this condition?
- A. Hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia
- B. Hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia
- C. Hypotension, tachycardia, hypothermia
- D. Hypertension, bradycardia, hyperthermia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms: hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia (choice A) are not typical findings in serotonin syndrome. Hypotension, tachycardia, and hypothermia (choice C) are also not consistent with serotonin syndrome. Hypertension, bradycardia, and hyperthermia (choice D) do not align with the characteristic symptoms of serotonin syndrome. Recognizing the key symptoms of serotonin syndrome is crucial for prompt identification and intervention to prevent serious complications.
4. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.
5. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
- B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
- C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
- D. The client maintains a stable weight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.
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