Nursing Elites

1. A preschool-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?

• A. Risk for Injury related to hypertension.
• B. Altered Growth and Development related to chronic disease.
• C. Risk for Infection related to hypertension.
• D. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a preschool-age child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) is 'Risk for Injury related to hypertension' due to the potential complications such as hypertensive encephalopathy. Hypertension poses an immediate threat to the child's well-being, making it crucial to address the risk for injury associated with elevated blood pressure as the top priority.

2. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

• A. Morphine
• B. Pentazocine
• C. Hydrocodone
• D. Nalmefene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

3. A newborn diagnosed with an omphalocele defect is admitted to the intensive care nursery. Which nursing action is appropriate based on the current data?

• A. Placing the newborn on a radiant warmer
• B. Placing the newborn in an open crib
• C. Preparing the newborn for phototherapy
• D. Preparing the newborn for bottle-feeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the newborn on a radiant warmer is appropriate as it helps maintain the body temperature and prevent hypothermia in a newborn with an omphalocele defect. This is crucial for the infant's well-being and supports their physiological stability.

4. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

5. A nurse is teaching a group of parents about preventing childhood obesity. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Serve your child 1 to 2 cups of fruit juice daily
• B. Feed your child whole milk until 2 years of age
• C. Eat at least one fruit or vegetable with each meal
• D. Limit your child's TV watching to 1 to 2 hr per day

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

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