Nursing Elites

1. A preschool-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?

• A. Risk for Injury related to hypertension.
• B. Altered Growth and Development related to chronic disease.
• C. Risk for Infection related to hypertension.
• D. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a preschool-age child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) is 'Risk for Injury related to hypertension' due to the potential complications such as hypertensive encephalopathy. Hypertension poses an immediate threat to the child's well-being, making it crucial to address the risk for injury associated with elevated blood pressure as the top priority.

2. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use salt substitutes to lower my sodium intake
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will call my doctor if I begin having menstrual irregularities
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime each evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.

3. A post-op patient has an epidural infusion of morphine sulfate. The patient�s respiratory rate declines to 8 breaths/minute. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Naloxone (Narcan)
• B. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
• C. Methyprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
• D. Protamine Sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that can reverse the effects, both adverse and therapeutic, of opioid narcotic analgesics.

4. A nurse is teaching a parent of a child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will notify my child's school about his condition.
• B. I will encourage my child to eat a carbohydrate snack if his blood glucose is low.
• C. I will rotate injection sites each time I give my child insulin.
• D. I will ensure my child receives the flu vaccine every year.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the parent to rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage and improve insulin absorption.

5. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

Similar Questions