Nursing Elites

1. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Exposure and response prevention
• C. Interpersonal therapy
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

2. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

3. A client is diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Excessive worry about physical symptoms
• B. Fear of gaining weight
• C. Frequent visits to healthcare providers
• D. Persistent depressive mood

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with somatic symptom disorder often exhibit frequent visits to healthcare providers due to their excessive worry about physical symptoms. They seek reassurance and explanations for their perceived medical issues, even when there is no organic basis for their complaints. This behavior is a characteristic feature of somatic symptom disorder and distinguishes it from other conditions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Excessive worry about physical symptoms may occur but it is not the primary behavior associated with this disorder. Fear of gaining weight is more characteristic of eating disorders, and persistent depressive mood is more indicative of mood disorders rather than somatic symptom disorder.

4. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?

• A. Implement a no-harm contract with the client.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of self-harm.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in recreational activities.
• D. Encourage the client to maintain a structured daily routine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to a psychiatric unit, implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention to promote the client's safety. A no-harm contract is a formal agreement between the client and the healthcare provider stating that the client commits to not harm themselves or others. This intervention helps in establishing boundaries and promoting safety by enhancing communication and accountability between the client and the healthcare team. Monitoring the client closely for signs of self-harm (Choice B) is important but does not directly address promoting safety through a formal agreement. Encouraging participation in recreational activities (Choice C) and maintaining a structured daily routine (Choice D) are beneficial interventions but may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a client with borderline personality disorder.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings shouldn't the professional expect?

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Lanugo
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, healthcare professionals should expect findings such as amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; instead, hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, is more commonly seen in these individuals due to malnutrition and other factors.

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