Nursing Elites

1. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Exposure and response prevention
• C. Interpersonal therapy
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

2. During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, which intervention is most appropriate for a patient?

• A. Encourage the patient to engage in group activities.
• B. Provide a structured and low-stimulus environment.
• C. Allow the patient to set their schedule.
• D. Engage the patient in high-energy physical activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened energy levels, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep. Providing a structured and low-stimulus environment is crucial in managing manic episodes. This intervention helps reduce overstimulation and provides a calm and predictable setting, which can be beneficial in helping the patient regain control and stability. Group activities and high-energy physical activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania by increasing stimulation and excitement. Allowing the patient to set their schedule may not provide the necessary structure needed during a manic episode, hence making it less appropriate.

3. When an individual uses the defense mechanism of displacement after the boss openly disagrees with suggestions, what behavior would be expected from this individual?

• A. The individual assertively confronts the boss
• B. The individual leaves the staff meeting to work out in the gym
• C. The individual criticizes a coworker
• D. The individual takes the boss out to lunch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The individual using the defense mechanism of displacement would criticize a coworker after being confronted by the boss. Displacement involves transferring feelings from one target to a neutral or less-threatening target, hence the individual criticizing a coworker instead of directly confronting the boss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the individual is not likely to assertively confront the boss when using displacement. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the meeting to work out in the gym is not a typical response when displacement is used. Choice D is incorrect as taking the boss out to lunch does not align with the concept of displacement, which involves redirecting emotions onto another target.

4. A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms?

• A. Her memory problems will likely decrease.
• B. Depressive episodes should be less severe.
• C. She will probably enjoy social interactions more.
• D. She should experience a reduction in hallucinations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.

5. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

• A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
• B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
• C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
• D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

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