ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Exposure and response prevention
- C. Interpersonal therapy
- D. Supportive therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with major depressive disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional expect? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Anhedonia
- B. Hypersomnia
- C. Fatigue
- D. Flight of ideas
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In major depressive disorder, common findings include anhedonia (loss of interest or pleasure), hypersomnia (excessive sleepiness), fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. Flight of ideas, characterized by racing thoughts and rapid speech, is more commonly associated with bipolar disorder, particularly during manic episodes. Therefore, 'Flight of ideas' does not apply to the expected findings in major depressive disorder.
3. A client has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder, and a nurse is providing care. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?
- A. Implement a no-harm contract with the client.
- B. Monitor the client closely for signs of self-harm.
- C. Encourage the client to participate in recreational activities.
- D. Encourage the client to maintain a structured daily routine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention for clients with borderline personality disorder as it helps establish an agreement between the client and the healthcare provider to abstain from self-harming behaviors. This contract aims to promote the client's safety by enhancing awareness and providing a structured approach in managing impulses and emotions.
4. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.
5. A client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is being cared for by a nurse. Which symptom should the nurse identify as a priority to address?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Increased heart rate
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased heart rate is a critical symptom to address in a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal as it can indicate potential cardiovascular complications. Monitoring and managing the increased heart rate promptly is essential to prevent adverse outcomes.
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