ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for chest pain. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take first?
- A. Obtain a detailed medical history
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Conduct an ECG
- D. Administer morphine sulfate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve oxygen supply to the heart. Obtaining a detailed medical history, conducting an ECG, or administering morphine sulfate are important steps in the assessment and treatment process but are secondary to the immediate need to address chest pain and potential cardiac ischemia.
2. A case manager at an assisted living facility is reviewing the use of complementary health practices by several clients. Which of the following actions should the case manager plan to take?
- A. Plan to report a client's use of echinacea to the provider as a contraindication to aspirin therapy
- B. Plan to schedule time for a new client to continue tai chi practice as a stress reduction technique
- C. Tell a client that yoga has not been proven effective to reduce manifestations of menopause
- D. Tell a client who drinks cranberry juice daily that it can help treat existing urinary tract infections
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tai chi is a recognized complementary health practice for stress reduction. Scheduling time for a new client to continue tai chi practice aligns with supporting holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because reporting a client's use of echinacea as a contraindication to aspirin therapy is not necessary without further context or evidence of interactions. Choice C is wrong because yoga can indeed be effective in reducing manifestations of menopause. Choice D is also incorrect because while cranberry juice is known to help prevent urinary tract infections, it is not typically used to treat existing infections.
3. The nurse is assessing the patient for respiratory complications of immobility. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Auscultate the entire lung region to assess lung sounds.
- B. Assess the patient at least every 4 hours.
- C. Focus auscultation on the upper lung fields.
- D. Inspect chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Auscultating the entire lung region is the most appropriate action when assessing a patient for respiratory complications related to immobility. This approach helps the nurse identify any abnormalities in lung sounds, such as diminished breath sounds or the presence of secretions. Assessing the patient at regular intervals (choice B) is important but does not specifically address the respiratory assessment needed in this situation. Focusing auscultation on the upper lung fields (choice C) may miss potential issues in other areas. Inspecting chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle (choice D) is not the most effective way to assess lung sounds and identify respiratory complications.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
5. The patient experienced a surgical procedure, and Betadine was utilized as the surgical prep. Two days postoperatively, the nurse's assessment indicates that the incision is red and has a small amount of purulent drainage. The patient reports tenderness at the incision site. The patient's temperature is 100.5°F, and the WBC is 10,500/mm³. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reevaluate the temperature and white blood cell count in 4 hours.
- B. Check which solution was used for skin preparation in surgery.
- C. Plan to change the surgical dressing during the shift.
- D. Utilize SBAR to notify the primary health care provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient is showing signs of a possible surgical site infection, including redness, purulent drainage, tenderness, elevated temperature, and increased white blood cell count. These symptoms suggest the need for immediate action to address a potential complication. Utilizing SBAR to notify the primary health care provider is crucial as it allows for effective communication of the patient's condition and the need for further assessment and intervention. Reevaluating the temperature and white blood cell count later, checking the solution used for skin preparation, or planning to change the dressing do not address the urgent need for intervention and communication with the healthcare provider.
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