Nursing Elites

1. After unsuccessful alternatives, a patient requires restraints. The nurse is reviewing the orders. Which findings indicate to the nurse the order is legal and appropriate for safe care?

• A. The health care provider writes the type and location of the restraint.
• B. The health care provider renews orders for restraints every 24 hours.
• C. The health care provider performs a face-to-face assessment prior to the order.
• D. The health care provider orders restraints PRN (as needed).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of restraining a patient, it is crucial for the health care provider to specify the type and location of the restraint in the order to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. This information helps guide the nursing staff in the safe application of restraints. Renewing orders every 24 hours ensures that the need for restraints is continually assessed, promoting patient safety. Performing a face-to-face assessment before ordering restraints allows for a thorough evaluation of the patient's condition and the necessity of using restraints. Ordering restraints PRN (as needed) is not appropriate for safe care as it lacks specificity and may lead to inconsistent application and monitoring.

2. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent infection?

• A. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
• B. Ensure the tubing is unkinked.
• C. Empty the drainage bag every 4 hours.
• D. Hang the drainage bag below the bladder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to hang the drainage bag below the bladder. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not necessary unless clinically indicated and may increase infection risk by introducing pathogens. Ensuring the tubing is unkinked promotes proper urine flow but does not directly prevent infection. Emptying the drainage bag regularly is important to prevent urinary stasis but does not directly address infection prevention.

3. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

4. A client complains of pain in the leg while in skeletal traction. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Increase the pain medication immediately
• B. Check for signs of infection
• C. Reposition the client's leg for comfort
• D. Notify the physician of the client's complaints

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check for signs of infection. In skeletal traction, the priority action for the nurse when a client complains of pain in the leg is to first assess for signs of infection. Pain in skeletal traction can be a symptom of infection or other complications, so checking for signs of infection is crucial before considering other interventions. Increasing pain medication immediately (Choice A) may mask the symptoms of an underlying infection. Repositioning the client's leg for comfort (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the potential underlying issue. Notifying the physician of the client's complaints (Choice D) is important but assessing for infection should come first to ensure timely and appropriate intervention.

5. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?

• A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
• B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
• C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
• D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.

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