a nurse is providing teaching for a pt with a prescription for oral metronidazole what is the priority teaching point
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching for a patient with a prescription for oral metronidazole, what is the priority teaching point?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Report a rash.' Metronidazole can cause severe adverse reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a life-threatening rash. It is crucial to educate the patient to report any rash immediately to prevent serious complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be relevant to consider during metronidazole therapy, they are not the priority teaching point. Headaches can occur but are not as serious as a rash; avoiding sunlight is more related to doxycycline, not metronidazole; and taking with meals is a general instruction for some medications but not the priority teaching point for metronidazole.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an indication of digoxin toxicity to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting. Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Diarrhea (Choice A) is a more common side effect of digoxin but not typically associated with toxicity. Ringing in the ears (Choice C) is a potential sign of toxicity; however, vomiting is a more immediate concern. Dizziness (Choice D) can occur with digoxin use but is not a specific indicator of toxicity.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

4. A client undergoing surgery refuses to remove religious jewelry. What is the best course of action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct course of action is to remove the jewelry and document the removal. While religious beliefs should be respected, ensuring patient safety during surgery is crucial. Securing the jewelry may not be sufficient to prevent any interference during the surgical procedure. Documenting the removal is important for legal and documentation purposes. Delaying the surgery or removing the jewelry with the family's permission may not be the best options as patient safety should be the top priority in this situation.

5. A client is vomiting, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preventing aspiration is the priority when caring for a client who is vomiting to reduce the risk of pneumonia or other respiratory complications. Aspiration can occur when vomitus enters the airway, leading to respiratory distress. Ensuring the airway is protected during vomiting episodes is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) can be considered after addressing the immediate risk of aspiration. Notifying housekeeping (Choice B) and providing an emesis basin (Choice D) are important but are secondary to preventing aspiration, which is crucial for the client's safety and well-being.

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