Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted with suspected pneumonia. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Auscultate the patient's lung sounds.
• B. Assess the patient's oxygen saturation.
• C. Monitor the patient's white blood cell count.
• D. Monitor the patient's skin integrity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's oxygen saturation. In suspected pneumonia, ensuring adequate oxygenation is critical to monitor respiratory function. Auscultating lung sounds is important but assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence as it directly reflects the patient's oxygen levels. Monitoring white blood cell count is more related to infection assessment rather than immediate respiratory status. Checking skin integrity is essential for overall patient care but is not the priority in a patient with suspected pneumonia.

2. A nurse is discussing organ donation with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. To donate organs, a client must provide consent prior to death
• B. The transplant team will harvest the organs for donation from the donor client
• C. During admission, all clients over the age of 18 should be asked about their organ donor status
• D. The National Organ Transplant Act prohibits the sale and purchase of organs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking clients over 18 about their organ donation status upon admission is essential to ensure their wishes are respected. Option A is incorrect because organ donation requires consent, not harvesting. Option B is incorrect because the transplant team, not the donor client's provider, is responsible for organ retrieval. Option D is incorrect because the National Organ Transplant Act prohibits the commercialization of organ transactions, not their donation.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?

• A. Sheepskin heel pad
• B. Footboard
• C. Trochanter roll
• D. Abduction pillow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.

4. A client has urinary incontinence, and the nurse is caring for them. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to prevent the development of skin breakdown?

• A. Request a prescription for the insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Check the client's skin every 8 hours for signs of breakdown
• C. Apply a moisture barrier ointment to the client's skin
• D. Clean the client's skin and perineum with hot water after each episode of incontinence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to prevent skin breakdown in a client with urinary incontinence is to apply a moisture barrier ointment to the skin. This ointment helps protect the skin from the harmful effects of moisture exposure, reducing the risk of breakdown. Requesting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) should not be the first-line intervention for skin breakdown prevention. Checking the client's skin for signs of breakdown (Choice B) is important but not as effective as applying a moisture barrier. Cleaning the skin with hot water (Choice D) can actually be detrimental as hot water can strip the skin of its natural oils and worsen skin integrity.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
• B. SaO2 94%
• C. Respiratory rate 8/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.

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