ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A public health nurse is developing guidelines for the management of a botulism outbreak. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. High-risk individuals should receive immunoglobulin E (IgE)
- B. Implement airborne precautions for clients who have botulism
- C. Administer an aminoglycoside medication
- D. Rinse skin with soap and water following exposure to the botulism toxin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rinsing the skin with soap and water following exposure to the botulism toxin is crucial as it helps remove the toxin from the skin, preventing further absorption. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is not used in the management of botulism. Airborne precautions are not necessary for botulism as it is not transmitted through the air. Aminoglycoside medications are not the treatment of choice for botulism.
2. What intervention should the nurse implement for a patient receiving a blood transfusion?
- A. Administer antihistamines to prevent allergic reactions.
- B. Monitor the patient for signs of circulatory overload.
- C. Ensure the blood transfusion is completed within 4 hours.
- D. Check the patient's vital signs every 30 minutes during the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient receiving a blood transfusion is to monitor the patient for signs of circulatory overload. This is crucial to prevent fluid overload, which can lead to serious complications. Administering antihistamines is not a routine intervention during blood transfusions unless the patient shows signs of an allergic reaction. Ensuring the completion of the blood transfusion within a specific time frame is not as critical as monitoring for circulatory overload. Checking vital signs every 30 minutes is essential, but the specific focus should be on monitoring for signs of circulatory overload.
3. Which of the following actions is a means of maintaining medical asepsis to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms?
- A. Sterilizing contaminated items
- B. Routinely cleaning the hospital environment
- C. Reapplying a sterile dressing
- D. Applying a sterile gown and gloves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sterilizing contaminated items. Maintaining medical asepsis involves ensuring that items are free of microorganisms to prevent infections. Sterilizing contaminated items is a crucial step in this process as it eliminates all microorganisms, including spores. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the process of reducing and preventing the spread of microorganisms. While routinely cleaning the hospital environment is important for cleanliness, it does not guarantee the elimination of all microorganisms. Reapplying a sterile dressing and applying a sterile gown and gloves are specific actions related to personal protective equipment and wound care, not the general maintenance of medical asepsis.
4. Which nursing action will best promote patient safety when administering medications?
- A. Check the patient's wristband before administering medications.
- B. Confirm the patient's allergies prior to administration.
- C. Document the medications immediately after administration.
- D. Prepare medications at the medication cart to minimize distractions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confirming the patient's allergies before administering medications is crucial for patient safety as it helps prevent adverse reactions. Checking the patient's wristband is important for identification but may not directly impact medication safety. Documenting medications after administration is necessary but does not primarily promote safety during administration. Preparing medications at the medication cart, rather than the nurse's station, is preferred to ensure accuracy and proper medication handling, but it is not directly related to confirming allergies for safety.
5. Which of the following clients requiring crutches should a nurse teach about how to use a three-point gait?
- A. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight-bearing on the affected leg
- B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities
- C. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight-bearing on both legs
- D. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A three-point gait is recommended for clients who are non-weight bearing on one leg. In this case, a client with a right femur fracture requiring no weight-bearing on the affected leg would benefit from learning how to use a three-point gait. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve clients who have varying degrees of weight-bearing ability on both legs, which would not require the use of a three-point gait.
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