ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A public health nurse is developing guidelines for the management of a botulism outbreak. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. High-risk individuals should receive immunoglobulin E (IgE)
- B. Implement airborne precautions for clients who have botulism
- C. Administer an aminoglycoside medication
- D. Rinse skin with soap and water following exposure to the botulism toxin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rinsing the skin with soap and water following exposure to the botulism toxin is crucial as it helps remove the toxin from the skin, preventing further absorption. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is not used in the management of botulism. Airborne precautions are not necessary for botulism as it is not transmitted through the air. Aminoglycoside medications are not the treatment of choice for botulism.
2. A client is being prepared for discharge after a stroke. Which of the following interventions should be included in the discharge plan to prevent complications?
- A. Recommend physical therapy to improve mobility
- B. Teach the client how to use an incentive spirometer
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate daily
- D. Provide education on proper medication management
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to provide education on proper medication management. Proper medication management is crucial in reducing the risk of stroke recurrence and ensuring the client adheres to the treatment plan. While physical therapy, incentive spirometer use, and daily ambulation are important aspects of stroke rehabilitation, they are not directly related to preventing complications during the discharge phase.
3. Which of the following statements reflects the principles of sterile technique?
- A. Sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are to be considered contaminated.
- B. Items in a sterile package must be used immediately once the package has been opened; otherwise, they are considered contaminated.
- C. Any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is sterile as long as it is not touched.
- D. The edge of a sterile field and a border 1 inch (2.5 cm) inward is unsterile.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement reflecting the principles of sterile technique is that sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are considered contaminated. This principle is crucial in maintaining asepsis during medical procedures. Choice B is incorrect because items in a sterile package should only be used if they remain sterile; opening the package does not automatically contaminate the items. Choice C is incorrect as any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is considered unsterile. Choice D is incorrect as the edge of a sterile field and a border inward are typically considered unsterile to maintain the integrity of the sterile area.
4. Which of the following clients requiring crutches should a nurse teach about how to use a three-point gait?
- A. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight-bearing on the affected leg
- B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities
- C. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight-bearing on both legs
- D. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A three-point gait is recommended for clients who are non-weight bearing on one leg. In this case, a client with a right femur fracture requiring no weight-bearing on the affected leg would benefit from learning how to use a three-point gait. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve clients who have varying degrees of weight-bearing ability on both legs, which would not require the use of a three-point gait.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has developed pulmonary edema. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- B. Place the patient in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Monitor the patient's lung sounds every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the patient in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation in cases of pulmonary edema by reducing venous return to the heart and enhancing respiratory mechanics. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority over positioning in this situation. Administering oxygen (Choice C) is essential, but the priority action for improving oxygenation is the positioning of the patient. Monitoring lung sounds (Choice D) is crucial for ongoing assessment but is not the priority action when the patient is in distress with pulmonary edema.
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