a nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg iv available is furosemide 10 mg1 ml how many ml should the nurse administer per dose
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

2. A patient is on contact precautions for an infection. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when caring for a patient on contact precautions is to wear gloves when entering the patient's room. This is crucial in preventing the spread of infection from the patient to the healthcare provider and vice versa. Placing the patient in a private room may be necessary for airborne precautions but is not specifically related to contact precautions. Using a dedicated blood pressure cuff for the patient is important for preventing cross-contamination but is not the most critical action. Disposing of equipment in a biohazard bag is a standard procedure but is not the most important action in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client with liver disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated ammonia levels in a client with liver disease can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can cause cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice A) are common in liver disease but do not require immediate intervention. Low albumin levels (Choice B) and low hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are also common in liver disease but do not pose an immediate threat compared to elevated ammonia levels.

4. A nurse is teaching the partner of a client who had a stroke about manifestations of dysphagia. Which of the following statements by the client's partner indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tilting the head forward during swallowing is not a compensatory technique for dysphagia and may increase the risk of aspiration. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements indicating appropriate monitoring for manifestations of dysphagia: coughing while eating, pocketing food in the mouth, and changes in voice after swallowing are all signs that should be monitored.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

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