Nursing Elites

1. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is significantly higher in the right arm than in the left arm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

• A. Acute myocardial infarction
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Aortic dissection
• D. Pericarditis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe chest pain that can radiate to the back. The discrepancy in blood pressure between the arms (higher in the right arm) is known as a 'pulse deficit' and is a classic finding in aortic dissection. This condition involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, leading to the abnormal flow of blood within the aortic wall. Acute myocardial infarction (choice A) presents with chest pain but typically does not cause discrepancies in blood pressure between arms. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) usually presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing but does not cause unequal blood pressures in the arms. Pericarditis (choice D) can cause chest pain exacerbated by breathing or lying down, but it does not typically lead to differences in blood pressure between arms.

2. How does influenza immunization produce immunity?

• A. The virus from the vaccine remains in the body until the end of the season
• B. An attenuated virus causes immune system suppression and triggers immunity
• C. The body identifies the virus and develops antibodies against the virus
• D. The vaccine remains in the injection site and produces immune cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Influenza immunization works by introducing a weakened or inactivated form of the virus into the body, allowing the immune system to recognize it as foreign. This recognition triggers the production of antibodies specific to the virus. Choice A is incorrect as the virus in the vaccine does not remain in the body until the end of the season. Choice B is incorrect as an attenuated virus does not cause immune system suppression but rather stimulates an immune response. Choice D is incorrect because the vaccine does not stay at the injection site but rather prompts a systemic immune response throughout the body.

3. In nephritic syndrome compared to nephrotic syndrome, there is:

• A. higher amounts of albuminuria.
• B. negligible hematuria or absence of hematuria.
• C. presence of red blood cell casts in the urine.
• D. hypoalbuminemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In nephritic syndrome, the presence of red blood cell casts in the urine is a characteristic finding, reflecting glomerular inflammation and damage. This differentiates it from nephrotic syndrome, where red blood cell casts are typically absent. Choice A is incorrect because nephritic syndrome usually presents with less albuminuria compared to nephrotic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as hematuria is a common feature of nephritic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hypoalbuminemia is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.

4. During a follow-up visit, a patient being treated for latent tuberculosis mentions inconsistent drug intake. What should subsequent health education focus on?

• A. The importance of adhering to the treatment regimen to reduce adverse effects
• B. The necessity of consistently taking the prescribed drugs for TB cure
• C. Matching drug dosages carefully to signs and symptoms
• D. The consequence of nonadherence leading to antiretroviral use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because consistent intake of prescribed drugs is crucial for curing tuberculosis. By emphasizing the necessity of following the treatment plan, the patient is more likely to achieve a successful outcome. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the risk of adverse effects rather than the primary goal of TB cure. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the issue of inconsistent drug intake. Choice D is also incorrect as it introduces a different treatment (antiretrovirals) not relevant to latent tuberculosis.

5. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
• B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. The patient's viral load
• D. The patient's CD4 count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.

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