Nursing Elites

1. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is significantly higher in the right arm than in the left arm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

• A. Acute myocardial infarction
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Aortic dissection
• D. Pericarditis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe chest pain that can radiate to the back. The discrepancy in blood pressure between the arms (higher in the right arm) is known as a 'pulse deficit' and is a classic finding in aortic dissection. This condition involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, leading to the abnormal flow of blood within the aortic wall. Acute myocardial infarction (choice A) presents with chest pain but typically does not cause discrepancies in blood pressure between arms. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) usually presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing but does not cause unequal blood pressures in the arms. Pericarditis (choice D) can cause chest pain exacerbated by breathing or lying down, but it does not typically lead to differences in blood pressure between arms.

2. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

• A. B cell deficiency
• B. T cell deficiency
• C. Combined immunodeficiency
• D. Complement deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

3. A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Assess for pain.
• B. Assess for nutritional deficiencies.
• C. Assess genetic tendency for infection.
• D. Assess for edema and decreased hemoglobin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.

4. What is the treatment for patients with hemophilia A?

• A. Chemotherapy
• B. Factor VIII replacement
• C. Heparin administration
• D. Bone marrow transplant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct treatment for patients with hemophilia A is Factor VIII replacement. Hemophilia A is a genetic disorder where there is a deficiency in clotting factor VIII. Therefore, replacing this factor is crucial in managing and preventing bleeding episodes. Choice A, chemotherapy, is not the correct treatment for hemophilia A. Choice C, heparin administration, is not recommended as it can further increase the risk of bleeding in patients with hemophilia. Choice D, bone marrow transplant, is not a standard treatment for hemophilia A.

5. During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as ______ atrophy.

• A. Physiologic
• B. Pathologic
• C. Disuse
• D. Neurogenic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Physiologic.' Physiologic atrophy is a normal part of development, like the reduction in thymus size during childhood. Pathologic atrophy (choice B) refers to tissue wasting due to disease, not a normal process like the reduction in thymus size. Disuse atrophy (choice C) results from a lack of physical activity or stimulation, which is not the case with thymus size reduction. Neurogenic atrophy (choice D) is caused by damage to or diseases of the nerves supplying the muscles, not related to the thymus size reduction seen in childhood.

Similar Questions