Nursing Elites

1. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is significantly higher in the right arm than in the left arm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

• A. Acute myocardial infarction
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Aortic dissection
• D. Pericarditis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe chest pain that can radiate to the back. The discrepancy in blood pressure between the arms (higher in the right arm) is known as a 'pulse deficit' and is a classic finding in aortic dissection. This condition involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, leading to the abnormal flow of blood within the aortic wall. Acute myocardial infarction (choice A) presents with chest pain but typically does not cause discrepancies in blood pressure between arms. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) usually presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing but does not cause unequal blood pressures in the arms. Pericarditis (choice D) can cause chest pain exacerbated by breathing or lying down, but it does not typically lead to differences in blood pressure between arms.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
• B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
• C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

3. A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screening is important.
• D. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.

4. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by:

• A. Immunosuppression
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Right-sided heart failure is characterized by peripheral edema, which results from the buildup of fluid in the body. This fluid accumulates in the extremities due to the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Immunosuppression is not a typical feature of right-sided heart failure. Pulmonary edema is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs. Coughing is a symptom that can be present in various conditions but is not a defining characteristic of right-sided heart failure.

5. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

• A. Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?
• B. Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?
• C. Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?
• D. Is there any mold in your home that you know of?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Botulism in infants is often linked to honey consumption. Asking the parents if they have ever given their child any honey or honey-containing products can provide crucial information for the differential diagnosis. This is important because infant botulism is commonly associated with the ingestion of honey contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant to botulism in infants as they do not directly relate to the typical causes of the condition. Family history of neuromuscular diseases (choice B) may be important for other conditions but not specifically for infant botulism. Direct exposure to chemical cleaning products (choice C) and the presence of mold in the home (choice D) are not typical risk factors for infant botulism.

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