Nursing Elites

1. A patient is receiving oral nystatin suspension for a fungal infection of the mouth. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to be experienced with this form of nystatin?

• A. Local irritation
• B. Burning
• C. Nausea
• D. Urinary urgency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Local irritation. When using oral nystatin suspension for a fungal infection of the mouth, local irritation is the most likely adverse effect that a patient may experience. Nystatin is generally well-tolerated, but some patients may develop local irritation, such as mouth or throat irritation. Choices B, C, and D are less likely adverse effects of oral nystatin suspension. Burning, nausea, and urinary urgency are not commonly associated with nystatin use for a fungal infection of the mouth.

2. A patient with endometriosis is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient with endometriosis who is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera), the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently, regardless of food intake. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

3. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

• A. Has your child received all recommended vaccinations?
• B. Has your child been feeding poorly or showing signs of constipation?
• C. Has your child been exposed to any sick individuals?
• D. Has your child been displaying signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Poor feeding and constipation are common early symptoms of infant botulism, which is caused by a neurotoxin that impairs muscle function. Option A is unrelated to the presentation of botulism. Option C does not directly relate to the symptoms of botulism. Option D is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than the constellation of symptoms seen in botulism.

4. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and tadalafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, the use of antihypertensive medications, and a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for tadalafil use.

5. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

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