Nursing Elites

1. What causes secondary brain injury after head trauma?

• A. Brain injury resulting from the body’s response to tissue damage
• B. Brain injury resulting from initial trauma
• C. Injury as a result of medical therapy
• D. Focal areas of bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary brain injury occurs due to the body's response to the initial trauma, which can worsen the effects of the primary injury. This response includes processes like inflammation, increased intracranial pressure, and reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to the primary trauma itself, not the secondary injury. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to injury caused by medical interventions rather than the body's response. Choice D is incorrect as it specifically mentions focal areas of bleeding, which is a consequence of trauma rather than the cause of secondary brain injury.

2. What are the signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease?

• A. Constipation with gastric distension.
• B. Bradycardia and bradypnea.
• C. Hyperthermia and tachycardia.
• D. Constipation and lethargy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease, the patient typically experiences symptoms such as hyperthermia (elevated body temperature) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate). These symptoms are indicative of the hypermetabolic state seen in thyroid storm. Choices A and D are incorrect as constipation and lethargy are not typical signs of a thyroid crisis; instead, patients with hyperthyroidism often experience diarrhea and agitation. Choice B is incorrect because bradycardia (slow heart rate) and bradypnea (slow breathing rate) are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than a thyroid crisis in Graves' disease.

3. Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
• B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
• C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
• D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. In acute glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomerulus, leading to inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. These processes collectively reduce the glomerular filtration rate. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the pathophysiologic process in acute glomerulonephritis. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries, necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure, and scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule are not the primary mechanisms responsible for the decreased filtration rate in this condition.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated with clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What side effect should the nurse warn the patient about?

• A. Headaches and visual disturbances
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort
• D. Fatigue and depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort.' Clomiphene citrate, commonly known as Clomid, can lead to hot flashes and abdominal discomfort as side effects. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient about these potential effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headaches and visual disturbances, nausea and vomiting, as well as fatigue and depression are not commonly associated with clomiphene citrate use.

5. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

• A. Suprapubic pain
• B. Periorbital edema
• C. Low serum creatinine level
• D. Palpable kidneys

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpable kidneys are a common clinical manifestation in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to the enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. Suprapubic pain is not typically associated with this condition. Periorbital edema is more commonly seen in conditions like nephrotic syndrome. A low serum creatinine level is not a typical finding in renal impairment, as impaired kidneys usually lead to an elevated serum creatinine level.

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