ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important contraindication should the nurse emphasize during patient education?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. History of hypertension
- C. History of peptic ulcer disease
- D. Use of antihypertensive medications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use. While a history of hypertension or peptic ulcer disease may require caution, they are not absolute contraindications like the concomitant use of nitrates.
2. Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?
- A. Hemangiomas
- B. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots)
- C. Macular stains
- D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains are birthmarks that usually fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and fade over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (Mongolian spots) are blue-gray birthmarks commonly found on the lower back and buttocks of infants, which typically fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also known as salmon patches, are pink or red birthmarks that usually fade within the first few years of life. Choice D is correct because all the mentioned birthmarks tend to diminish as the child grows, unlike choices A, B, and C which do not fade or regress with age.
3. Following a knee injury, a football player is taking ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, for the control of pain. Which drug action is most likely to result in diminished sensation of pain for the player?
- A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes
- B. Activation of opioid receptors
- C. Blocking of NMDA receptors
- D. Stimulation of serotonin receptors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting these enzymes, which are involved in the production of prostaglandins that mediate pain and inflammation. This inhibition leads to decreased prostaglandin production, resulting in a decrease in pain and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ibuprofen does not act on opioid receptors, NMDA receptors, or serotonin receptors to control pain. It primarily exerts its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects through COX enzyme inhibition.
4. A nurse working in a busy orthopedic clinic is asked to perform the Tinel sign on a client having problems in her hand/wrist. In order to test Tinel sign, the nurse should give the client which direction?
- A. Stand tall, arms at your side, shut your eyes; place the tip of your index finger to your nose.
- B. Hold your wrist in complete flexion, keep it in this position for 60 seconds. How does your hand feel after placing it in a neutral position?
- C. I'm going to tap (percuss) over the median nerve in your wrist; tell me what sensation you feel while I am doing this. Does the sensation stay in the wrist or go anywhere else?
- D. I'm going to tap this tuning fork; place it on the side of your thumb, then tell me what you are feeling in your hand and wrist.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Tinel sign involves percussing over the median nerve in the wrist to test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different action unrelated to the Tinel sign. Choice B is also incorrect as it involves holding the wrist in flexion, which is not part of the Tinel sign assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions using a tuning fork on the thumb, which is not the correct technique for assessing the Tinel sign.
5. How can a colony-stimulating factor affect the patient's erythrocyte count?
- A. It stimulates the growth of red blood cells.
- B. It suppresses T-cell production.
- C. It inhibits protein synthesis.
- D. It stimulates antibody production.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Colony-stimulating factors are substances that stimulate the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, so a colony-stimulating factor would specifically stimulate the growth of red blood cells, leading to an increase in the patient's erythrocyte count. Choice B is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not suppress T-cell production. Choice C is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not stimulate antibody production; they primarily affect the production of blood cells.
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