Nursing Elites

1. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What therapeutic effect is expected from this medication?

• A. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms
• B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction
• C. Improvement in erectile function
• D. Relief of pain associated with BPH

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms. Finasteride works by reducing the size of the prostate gland, which in turn helps alleviate urinary symptoms such as frequency, urgency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying of the bladder. Choice B is incorrect as while finasteride can improve urine flow indirectly by reducing prostate size, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride is not intended to improve erectile function. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does not primarily provide relief from pain associated with BPH.

2. A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The client's ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy.
• D. Initiate CPR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client presenting with chest pain, shortness of breath, and ST-segment elevation on ECG, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography. This procedure is crucial in diagnosing and treating acute myocardial infarction promptly. Administering aspirin (Choice A) is important but not the priority over emergent coronary angiography. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice C) is supportive but does not address the underlying cause of the ST-segment elevation. Initiating CPR (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario as the client is stable and conscious.

3. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

4. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?

• A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
• B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
• C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
• D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.

5. A 60-year-old male patient presents with severe and persistent pain in his left leg and hip that worsens with activity. After further evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma. Which of the following is true about osteosarcoma?

• A. It is more common in children and young adults.
• B. Early diagnosis improves the prognosis.
• C. It is frequently located in the leg bones.
• D. All of the above are true.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that can be found in any bone but is most commonly located in the long bones of the legs. While it is more prevalent in children and young adults, it can also occur in older individuals like the 60-year-old male patient in this case. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better prognosis in osteosarcoma cases. Therefore, all the statements provided are true regarding osteosarcoma, making option D the correct answer. Option A is accurate as osteosarcoma is more common in children and young adults. Option B is correct as early diagnosis improves the prognosis. Option C is accurate as osteosarcoma is frequently located in the leg bones.

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