Nursing Elites

1. A patient is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's immediate action?

• A. Assist the patient into a high Fowler's position.
• B. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths and cough.
• D. Assess the patient's lung sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula is the immediate action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. This intervention helps to improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress promptly. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (choice A) may also be beneficial but providing oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to address the underlying hypoxemia. Encouraging deep breaths and coughing (choice C) may not be appropriate as the first action, especially without assessing the patient first. Assessing lung sounds (choice D) is essential but should follow the initial intervention of administering oxygen.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
• B. Administer furosemide to the client
• C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
• D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with dehydration. Which finding indicates the patient's condition is worsening?

• A. Dry mucous membranes.
• B. Tachycardia and low blood pressure.
• C. Bradycardia and shallow respirations.
• D. Clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tachycardia and low blood pressure are indicative of worsening dehydration in a patient. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased intravascular volume, while low blood pressure reflects inadequate perfusion due to decreased fluid levels. Bradycardia and shallow respirations are not typical findings in worsening dehydration, and clear lung sounds do not directly correlate with the severity of dehydration.

4. How can a healthcare professional help prevent pressure ulcers in an immobile patient?

• A. Ensuring proper nutrition and hydration
• B. Using moisture barriers to protect the skin
• C. Turning the patient every 2 hours to prevent pressure
• D. Providing special mattresses or padding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ensuring proper nutrition and hydration is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in immobile patients. Adequate nutrition supports tissue health and repair, while hydration helps maintain skin elasticity. While turning the patient every 2 hours is important to prevent pressure injuries, it is not the primary way to address prevention. Using moisture barriers and providing special mattresses or padding are essential components of pressure ulcer prevention, but they are not as fundamental as ensuring proper nutrition and hydration.

5. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?

• A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
• B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
• C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
• D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.

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