ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. A patient is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's immediate action?
- A. Assist the patient into a high Fowler's position.
- B. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths and cough.
- D. Assess the patient's lung sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula is the immediate action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. This intervention helps to improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress promptly. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (choice A) may also be beneficial but providing oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to address the underlying hypoxemia. Encouraging deep breaths and coughing (choice C) may not be appropriate as the first action, especially without assessing the patient first. Assessing lung sounds (choice D) is essential but should follow the initial intervention of administering oxygen.
2. A client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Flush the IV line and continue the infusion.
- B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Increase the IV infusion rate to reduce discomfort.
- D. Apply a warm compress to the IV site and continue monitoring.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Pain and swelling at an IV site can indicate infiltration or infection, which are serious complications. Stopping the infusion helps prevent further harm to the client, and notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and intervention. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the IV line and continuing the infusion could exacerbate the issue. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the IV infusion rate is not the appropriate action for pain and swelling at the site. Choice D is incorrect because applying a warm compress may not address the underlying issue of infiltration or infection; it's crucial to stop the infusion and seek further guidance.
3. A client with a DNR order has requested resuscitation during a visit from the family. What is the nurse's best course of action?
- A. Follow the family's request and perform CPR.
- B. Explain to the family that the DNR must be honored.
- C. Call the healthcare provider to cancel the DNR order.
- D. Delay resuscitation until further clarification can be made.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct course of action for the nurse is to explain to the family that the DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) order must be honored. It is essential for the nurse to uphold the client's wishes as documented in the DNR order. Performing CPR against the client's expressed wishes in the DNR order would violate ethical and legal standards. Calling the healthcare provider to cancel the DNR order without the client's consent is inappropriate and goes against the client's autonomy. Delaying resuscitation can be detrimental in an emergency situation and may not align with the client's wishes as outlined in the DNR order.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.
5. A healthcare provider is providing a report to a colleague about a client who weighs 210 lb and has a prescription for one-third weight bearing on the right leg. How many kg of weight should the client bear on the right leg?
- A. 32 kg
- B. 35 kg
- C. 40 kg
- D. 45 kg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the weight-bearing limit, we first need to convert 210 lbs to kg. To do this, we use the conversion factor 1 lb = 0.453592 kg. So, 210 lbs is equal to 210 * 0.453592 = 95.254 kg. One-third of 95.254 kg is 31.7513 kg, which can be rounded to 32 kg. Therefore, the client should bear 32 kg of weight on the right leg. Choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight and the prescribed weight-bearing limit.
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