a patient is being treated with raloxifene evista for osteoporosis what should the nurse teach the patient about this medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Exam

1. A patient is being treated with raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent bone loss. It should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, not on an empty stomach. Choices A and B are incorrect because raloxifene is indeed a SERM that prevents bone loss, but it does not directly work by increasing bone formation or decreasing bone resorption. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common side effects of raloxifene.

2. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.

3. A healthcare provider is explaining to a patient the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and explains that secondary immunodeficiencies (select ONE that does not apply):

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statements about secondary immunodeficiencies are that they may develop after viral infections, following immunosuppressive therapies, and are caused by superimposed conditions. Choice B ('Develop before birth') is incorrect because secondary immunodeficiencies do not develop before birth. They are acquired later in life. Therefore, the correct answers are A, C, and D.

4. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

5. When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in size. Cardiac hypertrophy occurs when myocardial cells increase in size to compensate for an increased workload. This adaptation allows the heart to pump more effectively. Choice B, Decrease in length, is incorrect as cardiac cells do not decrease in length in response to increased workload. Choice C, Increase in excitability, is incorrect as increased workload does not lead to an increase in excitability of cardiac cells. Choice D, Increase in number, is incorrect as cardiac cells do not increase in number but rather increase in size to handle the increased workload.

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