Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being treated with finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What expected outcome should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
• B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
• C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
• D. The medication may decrease libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH, leading to decreased urinary frequency and urgency over several weeks or months. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is associated with another medication called minoxidil, not finasteride. Choice D is incorrect since finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.

2. A patient who is taking metronidazole for the past 4 days for the treatment of a parasitic infection reports to the nurse that his most recent dose made him 'flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach.' What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?

• A. “Have you experienced any allergic reactions to metronidazole before?”
• B. “Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?”
• C. “Did you take this dose on an empty stomach?”
• D. “Are you currently using any over-the-counter antihistamines?”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as flushing, sweating, and gastrointestinal upset. Asking the patient about alcohol consumption can help identify if this reaction is due to alcohol interaction. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on penicillin allergy, which is not relevant to metronidazole. Choice C is less likely to cause the reported symptoms and is not a common concern with metronidazole. Choice D is not directly related to the symptoms described by the patient.

3. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is being considered for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?

• A. Discuss the potential for increased bone density.
• B. Discuss the potential for an increased risk of cardiovascular events.
• C. Discuss the potential for a reduced risk of breast cancer.
• D. Discuss the potential for improved mood and energy levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including venous thromboembolism. Patients with a history of venous thromboembolism are at higher risk, so discussing this potential risk is crucial. Choice A, increased bone density, is not a major risk of HRT. Choice C, reduced risk of breast cancer, is not a common discussion point regarding HRT risks. Choice D, improved mood and energy levels, is more related to the benefits of HRT rather than its risks.

4. When discussing the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with a patient who has a history of coronary artery disease, what should the nurse emphasize?

• A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke.
• B. HRT may increase the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may decrease the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of coronary artery disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT is actually known to decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as HRT may slightly increase the risk of breast cancer.

5. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?

• A. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid overload.
• B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation.
• D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.

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