Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin B. What is the expected length of treatment for this patient?

• A. 1 to 2 weeks
• B. 3 to 6 weeks
• C. 4 to 12 weeks
• D. 15 to 18 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '4 to 12 weeks.' Amphotericin B treatment duration for severe fungal infections typically ranges from 4 to 12 weeks. This extended period is necessary to ensure complete eradication of the fungal infection and prevent relapse. Choices A, B, and D provide durations that are either too short or too long for treating severe fungal infections effectively, making them incorrect.

2. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

3. What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
• B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
• C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
• D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This inflammation leads to the deposition of immune complexes, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation, which collectively contribute to a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice A is incorrect as decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries would not directly result in decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice C is incorrect as necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure would affect kidney function differently. Choice D is incorrect as scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule due to toxin-induced collagen synthesis is not a typical feature of acute glomerulonephritis.

4. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. History of myocardial infarction
• C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
• D. Use of nitrates

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.

5. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the use of this medication?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Taking it at different times can lead to hormonal fluctuations and reduced medication efficacy. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice B is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management, not automatically leading to discontinuation of the medication.

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