a patient receiving isoniazid inh and rifampin rifadin has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes which laboratory value
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

2. A client with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a pulmonary exacerbation in cystic fibrosis, the priority intervention is to initiate airway clearance techniques. These techniques help clear mucus from the airways, improving ventilation and reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Administering a high-calorie, high-protein diet is beneficial for overall nutrition but is not the priority during an exacerbation. Encouraging an active lifestyle is important for long-term health but does not address the immediate need for managing exacerbations. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is important, but initiating airway clearance techniques takes precedence in the management of pulmonary exacerbations in cystic fibrosis.

3. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the contraceptive's efficacy, potentially leading to decreased effectiveness. Therefore, patients should be advised to use additional contraception methods if they are also taking antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is incorrect since taking oral contraceptives with food does not necessarily impact their effectiveness.

4. Which of the following is the most likely indication for the use of immunosuppressant agents?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Organ transplantation. Immunosuppressant agents are commonly used in organ transplant recipients to prevent organ rejection by suppressing the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Intractable seizure disorders are often managed with antiepileptic drugs, increased intracranial pressure is managed through various means like surgery and medications, and HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance is typically treated with antiretroviral therapy, not immunosuppressant agents.

5. A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.

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