a patient receiving isoniazid inh and rifampin rifadin has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes which laboratory value
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

2. In the ICU setting, a client transported from surgery following open heart bypass grafting will likely have his or her core temperature measured by:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An esophageal thermometer is commonly used in ICU settings to accurately measure core body temperature, especially in post-surgical patients. The esophageal thermometer provides a more precise measurement of core temperature compared to other methods like oral, rectal, or temporal artery thermometers. In the ICU, accuracy in temperature measurement is crucial for detecting and responding to changes promptly, making the esophageal thermometer the preferred choice in this scenario.

3. Which of the following women are at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Obesity and irregular menstrual cycles, including periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods, are significant risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer. Choice A is less likely as postmenopausal status reduces the risk. Choice C is not directly associated with a high risk of endometrial cancer. Choice D, smoking, is more strongly linked to other types of cancers like lung cancer rather than endometrial cancer.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

5. Following cardiothoracic surgery where controlled therapeutic hypothermia was utilized to decrease metabolic demands, the nurse responsible for monitoring this client postoperatively should be assessing for which potential complication related to cold cardioplegia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coagulopathy is the correct answer. During therapeutic hypothermia, which lowers the body's temperature to reduce metabolic demands post-surgery, coagulopathy, or impaired blood clotting, is a potential complication due to the effects of cold cardioplegia. Thrombocytopenia (choice A) refers to a low platelet count and is not directly related to cold cardioplegia. Hypokalemia (choice B) is a condition of low potassium levels, and hyperglycemia (choice C) is high blood sugar levels, neither of which are primary complications of cold cardioplegia.

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