Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. HRT can decrease the risk of osteoporosis, but the patient should also be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism.
• C. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so the patient should undergo regular breast exams.
• D. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also carries a risk of cardiovascular events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because although HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, the focus of concern in this case is the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the risk of breast cancer, which is not the primary concern when discussing HRT with a patient with a history of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as it mentions cardiovascular events, which are not the main focus of risk associated with HRT in this scenario.

2. A patient is prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for the treatment of infertility. Which of the following statements should be included in the nurse's teaching?

• A. This drug induces ovulation by stimulating gonadotropins.
• B. This drug induces ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
• C. This drug suppresses ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
• D. This drug increases progesterone levels, which maintains pregnancy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the nurse's teaching is that clomiphene induces ovulation by stimulating the release of gonadotropins, which in turn stimulate the ovaries. Choice B is incorrect because clomiphene does not induce ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice C is also incorrect as clomiphene does not suppress ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice D is inaccurate as clomiphene does not directly increase progesterone levels to maintain pregnancy.

3. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

• A. Suprapubic pain
• B. Periorbital edema
• C. Low serum creatinine level
• D. Palpable kidneys

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Palpable kidneys. Polycystic kidney disease often leads to the development of multiple fluid-filled cysts within the kidneys, causing them to enlarge. Enlarged kidneys can be palpated during a physical examination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suprapubic pain is not a typical clinical manifestation of polycystic kidney disease. Periorbital edema is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome or heart failure. Low serum creatinine level is not expected in patients with renal impairment due to polycystic kidney disease; instead, elevated serum creatinine levels are more likely.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a newly inserted pacemaker. What is the most important nursing action post-procedure?

• A. Monitor the insertion site for signs of infection.
• B. Educate the client about activity restrictions.
• C. Monitor the client's heart rate and rhythm.
• D. Assess the client's lung sounds for signs of fluid overload.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Post-procedure, monitoring the insertion site for signs of infection is crucial because it helps in early detection of any potential complications such as infection. While educating the client about activity restrictions, monitoring the client's heart rate and rhythm, and assessing lung sounds for signs of fluid overload are important aspects of care, the immediate priority post-procedure is to prevent infection at the insertion site, which could lead to serious complications.

5. Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?

• A. Excessive applications will lead to central nervous system toxicity.
• B. Excessive applications will cause irritation, rash, and inflammation.
• C. Excessive applications will cause headaches, dizziness, and diarrhea.
• D. Excessive applications will lead to anorexia and cachexia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.

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