ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
1. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?
- A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
- B. RR of 26 breaths/min
- C. Temp of 38°C
- D. BP of 70/50
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.
2. A child with suspected bacterial meningitis is under the care of a nurse. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
- B. Maintain the child on NPO status.
- C. Monitor the child's intake and output.
- D. Implement seizure precautions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority action for a child with suspected bacterial meningitis is to implement seizure precautions. Meningitis can lead to increased intracranial pressure, which may trigger seizures. By implementing seizure precautions, such as padding the side rails of the bed and ensuring a clear environment, the nurse aims to prevent injury during a potential seizure episode, prioritizing the child's safety. Administering antibiotics as prescribed is essential in treating bacterial meningitis, but seizure precautions take precedence due to the immediate risk of injury. Maintaining NPO status and monitoring intake and output are important aspects of care but are not the priority when considering the risk of seizures.
3. A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Offer the infant feedings every 2 hours.
- B. Position the infant upright after feedings.
- C. Feed the infant thickened formula.
- D. Place the infant in a prone position after feedings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct posture after feedings is crucial for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux to reduce the risk of regurgitation. Placing the infant upright helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus, minimizing symptoms of reflux.
4. What does the abbreviation BPD mean in a medical chart?
- A. Brain premature deficit
- B. Bronchiopulmonary dysplasia
- C. Bilateral partial disorder
- D. Baby post delivery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bronchiopulmonary Dysplasia. BPD refers to a chronic lung disorder that primarily affects premature infants or those who have been on ventilator support. It is characterized by abnormal development of the lungs and breathing difficulties. This abbreviation is commonly seen on medical charts in neonatal and pediatric settings.
5. Which is NOT one of the functions of challenging behaviors?
- A. Avoiding a situation
- B. Escaping from an undesired object or event
- C. to make others happy
- D. Sensory functions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Challenging behaviors often serve functions related to avoiding, escaping, obtaining, or sensory needs. The question is asking for the function that does not typically apply to challenging behaviors. Choices A, B, C, and D align with the common functions associated with challenging behaviors. Therefore, 'E' is the correct answer as it does not represent a typical function of challenging behaviors.
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