Nursing Elites

1. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

2. Why is it important to assess for in a child receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Infection
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Easy bruising
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child is receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome, it is crucial to assess for infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making the child more vulnerable to infections. Since steroids can mask typical signs of infection, it is essential to look for subtle symptoms to ensure prompt treatment and prevent complications. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the impact of prednisone therapy in nephrotic syndrome.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing medication instructions for a child who has undergone a kidney transplant and is prescribed cyclosporine. The parents ask the provider about the reason for the cyclosporine. Which rationale for this medication should the healthcare provider include in the response?

• A. Suppress rejection
• B. Decrease pain
• C. Improve circulation
• D. Boost immunity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cyclosporine is used to suppress the immune system and prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. It helps to reduce the risk of the body attacking and rejecting the new organ. This medication is crucial in ensuring the success of the kidney transplant by keeping the immune system in check.

4. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

5. A patient develops hypotension, laryngeal edema, and bronchospasm after eating peanuts. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting symptoms of anaphylaxis triggered by a peanut allergy, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. The appropriate medication for anaphylaxis is epinephrine. Epinephrine acts quickly to reverse the symptoms by constricting blood vessels, relaxing bronchial muscles, and reducing laryngeal edema, making it the drug of choice for this situation. Promethazine, diphenhydramine, and hydroxyzine are not the first-line treatments for anaphylaxis. Promethazine is an antihistamine with sedative effects, Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine, and Hydroxyzine is also an antihistamine with sedative properties. While these medications can help with mild allergic reactions, they are not as effective or fast-acting as epinephrine in treating the severe manifestations of anaphylaxis.

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