Nursing Elites

1. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

2. When preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a cardiac monitor on the adolescent prior to the procedure
• B. Apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour prior to the procedure
• C. Keep the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure
• D. Restrict fluids for 2 hours following the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture is to apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour before the procedure. This helps reduce pain experienced during the lumbar puncture, making the procedure more comfortable for the adolescent. Placing a cardiac monitor on the adolescent is not necessary for a lumbar puncture. Keeping the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure is not a standard practice after a lumbar puncture. Restricting fluids for 2 hours following the procedure is not a requirement for a lumbar puncture preparation.

3. The healthcare provider is providing care to a child who was treated with aspirin during a viral infection. Which clinical manifestations should cause the healthcare provider concern?

• A. Nausea, vomiting, and confusion
• B. Headache, vomiting, and seizures
• C. Sore throat, moist respirations, and cough
• D. Fever, rash, and photophobia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and confusion are concerning as they are indicative of Reye's syndrome, a rare but serious condition associated with aspirin use in children during viral illnesses. Reye's syndrome can lead to severe complications, including brain and liver damage, hence prompt recognition and management are crucial.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a child who has a rotavirus infection. Which of the following is an expected manifestation?

• A. Constipation
• B. Vomiting
• C. Jaundice
• D. Abdominal pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vomiting is a common manifestation of rotavirus infection in children. Rotavirus typically presents with symptoms such as watery diarrhea, vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain. Constipation, jaundice, and abdominal pain are less commonly associated with rotavirus infection in children.

5. Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?

• A. The posterior fontanel is open.
• B. The infant has good head control when held upright.
• C. The infant is able to roll only from abdomen to back.
• D. The anterior fontanel is open and soft.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The posterior fontanel should be closed by 4 months of age. An open posterior fontanel at this age may indicate a delay in normal closure, which could be a cause for concern and require further evaluation by the healthcare provider to ensure proper development and growth. Choices B, C, and D are typical developmental milestones for a 4-month-old infant and do not raise immediate concerns requiring further action by the nurse.

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