Nursing Elites

1. Prior to administering iodoquinol (Yodoxin), what assessment should the nurse make?

• A. Assess for allergy to iodine.
• B. Note the time the patient last ate.
• C. Assess for skin eruptions.
• D. Assess for ophthalmic symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering iodoquinol (Yodoxin), the nurse should assess for allergy to iodine since iodoquinol is a medication containing iodine. Assessing for skin eruptions (choice C) and ophthalmic symptoms (choice D) are not specifically related to iodoquinol administration. Noting the time the patient last ate (choice B) may be relevant for certain medications but is not directly related to assessing for an allergy to iodine in this case.

2. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

• A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
• B. ALT and AST
• C. Urine culture and sensitivity
• D. Erythrocyte count and differential

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

3. What is the treatment for patients with hemophilia A?

• A. Chemotherapy
• B. Factor VIII replacement
• C. Heparin administration
• D. Bone marrow transplant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct treatment for patients with hemophilia A is Factor VIII replacement. Hemophilia A is a genetic disorder where there is a deficiency in clotting factor VIII. Therefore, replacing this factor is crucial in managing and preventing bleeding episodes. Choice A, chemotherapy, is not the correct treatment for hemophilia A. Choice C, heparin administration, is not recommended as it can further increase the risk of bleeding in patients with hemophilia. Choice D, bone marrow transplant, is not a standard treatment for hemophilia A.

4. Which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

• A. A blow to the head from a hard object
• B. Lack of blood flow to part of the brain
• C. Excessive exercise, such as running
• D. A ruptured artery in the heart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke, is often caused by a lack of blood flow to part of the brain. This leads to damage in the brain tissue due to the deprived oxygen and nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A blow to the head from a hard object can cause a traumatic brain injury but is not the etiology of a CVA. Excessive exercise like running does not typically lead to a stroke. A ruptured artery in the heart may result in a heart attack, not a cerebrovascular accident.

5. A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

• A. Sideroblastic anemia
• B. Hemolytic anemia
• C. Pernicious anemia
• D. Iron deficiency anemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.

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