Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?

• A. The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.
• B. The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia.
• C. The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia.
• D. The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.

2. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

• A. There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma.
• B. Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status.
• C. The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia.
• D. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

3. The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response?

• A. Research has shown that eating a healthy diet can provide all the protection you need against breast cancer.
• B. Research has shown that taking the drug tamoxifen can reduce your chance of breast cancer.
• C. Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer.
• D. Research has shown that there is little you can do to reduce your risk of breast cancer if you have a genetic predisposition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in women who are at high risk, particularly those with a family history of the disease or a positive genetic test for BRCA mutations. Large-scale studies have demonstrated that tamoxifen can reduce the incidence of breast cancer by up to 50% in high-risk women. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in breast tissue, which helps prevent the development of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancers.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the patient's sacral area and petechiae on her forearms. In addition to informing the patient's primary care provider, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE).
• B. Check the patient's most recent platelet level.
• C. Place the patient on protective isolation.
• D. Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's signs of ecchymoses and petechiae are suggestive of thrombocytopenia, which is a common complication of leukemia. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to abnormal bleeding. Checking the patient's most recent platelet level is crucial to assess the severity of thrombocytopenia and guide further interventions. Initiating measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE) (Choice A) is not directly related to the patient's current signs. Placing the patient on protective isolation (Choice C) is not necessary for ecchymoses and petechiae. Ambulating the patient (Choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the underlying cause of abnormal bleeding.

5. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?

• A. Lymphadenectomy
• B. Needle biopsy
• C. Open biopsy
• D. Sentinel node biopsy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.

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