ATI RN
Oncology Questions
1. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?
- A. The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.
- B. The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia.
- C. The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia.
- D. The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.
2. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?
- A. Lymphadenectomy
- B. Needle biopsy
- C. Open biopsy
- D. Sentinel node biopsy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.
3. A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera presents to the clinic for routine bloodwork. What should the nurse monitor for in this patient as a priority?
- A. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
- B. Platelet count
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In polycythemia vera, there is an overproduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which leads to increased blood viscosity and a high risk for thrombosis (blood clot formation). Monitoring the platelet count is a priority because elevated platelet levels contribute significantly to the risk of developing blood clots, which can result in life-threatening complications such as strokes, heart attacks, or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, regular monitoring of the platelet count is essential to assess the patient’s risk for thrombosis and to guide treatment decisions, such as phlebotomy or medication adjustments to lower platelet levels.
4. A nurse is caring for a client admitted for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and chemotherapy. The client reports nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps. What action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Request an order for serum electrolytes and uric acid.
- B. Increase the client’s IV infusion rate.
- C. Instruct assistive personnel to strain all urine.
- D. Administer an IV antiemetic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's symptoms of nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps are suggestive of tumor lysis syndrome (TLS), a potentially life-threatening complication of chemotherapy in which cancer cells break down rapidly, releasing large amounts of intracellular components into the bloodstream. This leads to imbalances in electrolytes (elevated potassium, phosphate, and uric acid levels, with low calcium levels), which can cause severe metabolic disturbances, including kidney damage, arrhythmias, and muscle cramps. Checking serum electrolytes and uric acid levels is crucial for diagnosing and managing TLS early, preventing further complications.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings would be of most concern?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Fatigue
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Mouth sores
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Mouth sores.' Mouth sores (stomatitis) are a common and potentially serious side effect of chemotherapy. They can lead to difficulty eating, increased risk of infection, and overall decreased quality of life for the client. While alopecia, fatigue, and nausea/vomiting are also common side effects of chemotherapy, they are generally manageable and do not pose the same level of immediate concern as the development of mouth sores in a client undergoing chemotherapy.
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