Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?

• A. The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.
• B. The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia.
• C. The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia.
• D. The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.

2. A nurse at a long-term care facility is amending the care plan of a resident who has just been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication?

• A. Dalteparin
• B. Allopurinol
• C. Hydroxyurea
• D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hydroxyurea is effective in lowering the platelet count for patients with ET.

3. A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving chemotherapy. Which side effect is the nurse most concerned about?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Alopecia
• C. Fatigue
• D. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Peripheral neuropathy. This can be a serious and dose-limiting side effect of chemotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma. Peripheral neuropathy can cause tingling, numbness, and pain in the hands and feet due to nerve damage. While nausea and vomiting, alopecia, and fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy, they are not typically as concerning or dose-limiting as peripheral neuropathy in the context of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with colorectal cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary related to colorectal cancer if the client identifies which item as an associated risk factor?

• A. Age younger than 50 years
• B. History of colorectal polyps
• C. Family history of colorectal cancer
• D. Chronic inflammatory bowel disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age younger than 50 years. Colorectal cancer is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 50, so being younger than 50 is not typically considered a significant risk factor. Choice B, history of colorectal polyps, is a known risk factor as polyps can develop into cancer over time. Choice C, family history of colorectal cancer, is a well-established risk factor due to genetic predisposition. Choice D, chronic inflammatory bowel disease, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Therefore, the incorrect choice is A as age younger than 50 years is not a common risk factor for colorectal cancer.

5. A patient with myelofibrosis is being treated with ruxolitinib. What should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this treatment?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• D. Spleen size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit is essential to assess the effectiveness of ruxolitinib in treating myelofibrosis. Ruxolitinib works by inhibiting JAK1 and JAK2, which are involved in the signaling pathways that regulate blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels can provide valuable information on how well the drug is managing the disease. Blood pressure, white blood cell count, and spleen size are not direct indicators of the treatment's effectiveness in myelofibrosis.

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