Nursing Elites

1. A 50-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia will begin chemotherapy. What would the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy?

• A. Administer an antiemetic.
• B. Administer an antimetabolite.
• C. Administer a tumor antibiotic.
• D. Administer an anticoagulant.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically used to prevent or treat these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering an antimetabolite, a tumor antibiotic, or an anticoagulant would not directly address the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, which are nausea and vomiting.

2. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.

3. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?

• A. Eat a light breakfast only
• B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
• D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.

4. A new nurse has been assigned a client who is in the hospital to receive iodine-131 treatment. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Ensure the client is placed in protective isolation.
• B. Have pregnant visitors stay 6 feet from the client.
• C. No special action is necessary to care for this client.
• D. Read the policy on handling radioactive excreta.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Handling radioactive excreta requires special precautions; the nurse must be familiar with the facility's policies.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?

• A. Cardiac function
• B. Renal function
• C. Liver function
• D. Pulmonary function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.

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