ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. A patient with multiple myeloma has developed hypercalcemia. What symptoms should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. In patients with multiple myeloma who have developed hypercalcemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial. Hypercalcemia can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Choice A, increased heart rate, is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or anxiety rather than hypercalcemia. Choice B, decreased urine output, is commonly seen in conditions leading to acute kidney injury rather than hypercalcemia. Choice D, hypertension, is not a typical symptom of hypercalcemia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like uncontrolled high blood pressure.
2. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?
- A. Lymphadenectomy
- B. Needle biopsy
- C. Open biopsy
- D. Sentinel node biopsy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.
3. An oncology nurse is providing health education for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. What should the nurse explain about commonalities between all of the different subtypes of leukemia?
- A. The different leukemias all involve unregulated proliferation of white blood cells.
- B. The different leukemias all have unregulated proliferation of red blood cells and decreased bone marrow function.
- C. The different leukemias all result in a decrease in the production of white blood cells.
- D. The different leukemias all involve the development of cancer in the lymphatic system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Leukemia commonly involves unregulated proliferation of white blood cells.
4. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?
- A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
- B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
- C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
- D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration, and the health care provider changes the client's diet from NPO status to clear liquids. The nurse should check which priority item before administering the diet?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Ability to ambulate
- C. Incision appearance
- D. Urine specific gravity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bowel sounds. Checking for bowel sounds is crucial before administering any diet to ensure the gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly following surgery. This assessment helps prevent complications such as paralytic ileus. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While the ability to ambulate, incision appearance, and urine specific gravity are important assessments, ensuring bowel function takes precedence in this postoperative scenario.
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