ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. A patient with multiple myeloma has developed hypercalcemia. What symptoms should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. In patients with multiple myeloma who have developed hypercalcemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial. Hypercalcemia can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Choice A, increased heart rate, is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or anxiety rather than hypercalcemia. Choice B, decreased urine output, is commonly seen in conditions leading to acute kidney injury rather than hypercalcemia. Choice D, hypertension, is not a typical symptom of hypercalcemia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like uncontrolled high blood pressure.
2. When planning care for a 77-year-old male admitted with suspected acute myeloid leukemia (AML), what epidemiologic fact should the nurse be aware of?
- A. Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes.
- B. Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%.
- C. Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%.
- D. Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patient's pre-illness level of health.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the context of AML, the 5-year survival rate significantly decreases with age. The 5-year survival rate for patients over 75 years old is less than 2% compared to 43% for those 50 years or younger, and 19% for those between 50 and 64 years. Choice A is incorrect as early diagnosis does not necessarily guarantee good outcomes in AML. Choice B is inaccurate as the 5-year survival rate is not approximately 50% for older adults with AML. Choice D is incorrect as survival rates for AML patients are influenced by various factors beyond just the pre-illness level of health.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration, and the health care provider changes the client's diet from NPO status to clear liquids. The nurse should check which priority item before administering the diet?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Ability to ambulate
- C. Incision appearance
- D. Urine specific gravity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bowel sounds. Checking for bowel sounds is crucial before administering any diet to ensure the gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly following surgery. This assessment helps prevent complications such as paralytic ileus. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While the ability to ambulate, incision appearance, and urine specific gravity are important assessments, ensuring bowel function takes precedence in this postoperative scenario.
4. A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving radiation therapy. What side effect should the nurse monitor for that is most common with this type of treatment?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Fatigue
- C. Nausea
- D. Mucositis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Mucositis is a common side effect of radiation therapy that should be closely monitored.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim to a client undergoing chemotherapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase white blood cell production.
- B. Reduce the risk of infection.
- C. Enhance red blood cell production.
- D. Control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Filgrastim is primarily used to increase white blood cell production in clients undergoing chemotherapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access