ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. Why does a nurse on an oncology unit verify a client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin before administering it to a client with breast cancer?
- A. Excessive doxorubicin can result in myelosuppression.
- B. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may lead to extravasation.
- C. An excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy.
- D. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may cause red-tinged urine and sweat.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Verifying the client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin is necessary because excessive amounts of the medication can lead to cardiomyopathy, a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect. By monitoring the cumulative dose, healthcare providers can help prevent cardiotoxicity and ensure patient safety during treatment.
2. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication with milk.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication before bedtime.
- D. Take this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. Instruct the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption and avoid interactions with food or beverages that may decrease absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking Ferrous sulfate with milk can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to taking it before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of Ferrous sulfate.
3. When educating a client starting a new prescription for metoprolol, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Check your pulse before taking the medication.
- B. Take the medication with food to increase absorption.
- C. Avoid sudden changes in position.
- D. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting metoprolol is to avoid sudden changes in position. Metoprolol can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects, increasing the risk of falls and injury. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and related adverse events. Checking the pulse before taking the medication (Choice A) is not typically necessary for metoprolol. Taking the medication with food (Choice B) is not required for absorption and can be taken with or without food. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice D) is essential for clients taking metoprolol, but avoiding sudden changes in position is more critical to prevent dizziness and falls.
4. A client has a new prescription for Diltiazem. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication may cause dry mouth.
- B. You should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
- D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about Diltiazem is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the levels of diltiazem in the blood, leading to potential toxicity and increased side effects. It is important for the client to be aware of this interaction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication. Option A is incorrect because dry mouth is not a common side effect of Diltiazem. Option C is incorrect because Diltiazem is actually used to treat rapid heart rates. Option D is unrelated to the medication and not relevant to the teaching.
5. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
- B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
- C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
- D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unresponsive to laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It functions by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, helping alleviate constipation associated with opioid use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations, prevent dependence on Morphine, or work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to relieve opioid-induced constipation.
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