Nursing Elites

1. Why does a nurse on an oncology unit verify a client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin before administering it to a client with breast cancer?

• A. Excessive doxorubicin can result in myelosuppression.
• B. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may lead to extravasation.
• C. An excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy.
• D. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may cause red-tinged urine and sweat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verifying the client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin is necessary because excessive amounts of the medication can lead to cardiomyopathy, a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect. By monitoring the cumulative dose, healthcare providers can help prevent cardiotoxicity and ensure patient safety during treatment.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Dantrolene to a client who has developed Malignant Hyperthermia during surgery. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Dilute the medication with sterile water and administer it rapidly.
• B. Store the medication in a refrigerator until use.
• C. Administer the medication through a large-bore IV catheter.
• D. Administer the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dantrolene should be administered through a large-bore IV catheter because it is highly irritating to tissues and can cause vein irritation or thrombophlebitis if administered through a small vein. Using a large-bore IV catheter helps to minimize the risk of tissue damage and ensures proper and safe administration of the medication in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diluting the medication with sterile water and administering it rapidly can lead to tissue damage, storing the medication in a refrigerator is not necessary, and administering the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes is not appropriate in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia where rapid administration is crucial.

3. When educating a client with early Parkinson's disease about pramipexole, what adverse effect should the nurse advise the client to monitor for?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Increased salivation
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Discoloration of urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations, especially within 9 months of starting the medication, and may necessitate discontinuation. Hallucinations are a serious adverse effect that the client should be aware of and report promptly to their healthcare provider for evaluation and management. Increased salivation (choice B), diarrhea (choice C), and discoloration of urine (choice D) are not common adverse effects associated with pramipexole and are not typically emphasized in client education for this medication.

4. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

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