ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. Why does a nurse on an oncology unit verify a client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin before administering it to a client with breast cancer?
- A. Excessive doxorubicin can result in myelosuppression.
- B. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may lead to extravasation.
- C. An excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy.
- D. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may cause red-tinged urine and sweat.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Verifying the client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin is necessary because excessive amounts of the medication can lead to cardiomyopathy, a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect. By monitoring the cumulative dose, healthcare providers can help prevent cardiotoxicity and ensure patient safety during treatment.
2. When teaching a client with a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Nervousness
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Weight gain and fluid retention are common adverse effects of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention. Patients on long-term prednisone therapy should be advised to monitor their weight closely and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider. Choice B, 'Nervousness,' is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Choice C, 'Bradycardia,' refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Choice D, 'Constipation,' is not a typical adverse effect of oral prednisone; instead, gastrointestinal disturbances like increased appetite or even peptic ulcer disease may occur.
3. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the condition. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should eat small, frequent meals that are low in fiber.
- B. I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.
- C. I should take NSAIDs to relieve my pain.
- D. I will drink milk before bedtime to decrease acid production.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.' Limiting intake of caffeine-containing beverages is important for managing peptic ulcer disease as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the condition. It is advisable to choose decaffeinated beverages and avoid caffeinated drinks to help reduce the risk of aggravating the ulcer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests eating small, frequent meals low in fiber, which is not ideal for managing peptic ulcer disease. Choice C of taking NSAIDs is contraindicated as NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers. Choice D of drinking milk before bedtime to decrease acid production is a common misconception; while milk may temporarily neutralize stomach acid, it can stimulate more acid production later, making the condition worse.
4. A client in the emergency department has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Administer flumazenil.
- B. Identify the client's level of orientation.
- C. Infuse IV fluids.
- D. Prepare the client for gastric lavage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client presents with Benzodiazepine toxicity, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client. By identifying the client's level of orientation, the nurse can gather crucial information about the client's mental status, which is essential for determining the appropriate care and interventions needed. Administering flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines but should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Infusing IV fluids and preparing for gastric lavage may be necessary interventions but should follow a thorough assessment of the client's condition to ensure proper prioritization of care.
5. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Disorganized speech.
- B. Bizarre behavior.
- C. Impaired social interactions.
- D. Hallucinations.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.
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