ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the correct dosage of Haloperidol.
2. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
- C. Take this medication daily for anxiety.
- D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the medication's safety profile and potential risks associated with long-term use.
3. In the management of nausea due to gastroparesis in a client with Diabetes, which of the following medications may be prescribed?
- A. Lubiprostone
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Bisacodyl
- D. Loperamide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metoclopramide, as a dopamine antagonist, is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and improve gastric motility in clients with diabetic gastroparesis. By enhancing gastric emptying, it can help alleviate symptoms like bloating and nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice A, Lubiprostone, is primarily used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation, not nausea due to gastroparesis. Choice C, Bisacodyl, is a stimulant laxative used for the treatment of constipation and bowel preparation before procedures, not for nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice D, Loperamide, is an antimotility agent used to manage diarrhea, not nausea or gastric motility issues seen in gastroparesis.
4. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take digoxin with your morning dose of colesevelam.
- B. Your sodium and potassium levels will be monitored periodically while taking colesevelam.
- C. Watch for bleeding or bruising while taking colesevelam.
- D. Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When taking colesevelam, it should be administered with food and at least 8 oz of water to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Taking colesevelam with food also helps in binding to bile acids efficiently. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary instruction for taking colesevelam correctly or monitoring specific side effects associated with this medication.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Diazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.
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