Nursing Elites

1. How can a nurse manager best improve hand-off communication among the staff? (SATA)

• A. Attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor.
• B. Conducting audits of staff using a new template.
• C. Creating a template of topics to include in the report.
• D. Utilizing the SHARE model as a tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The SHARE model is a valuable tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication. By utilizing this model, the nurse manager can ensure consistency and clarity in hand-off communication among the staff. While attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor, conducting audits using a new template, and creating a template of topics to include in the report can all be beneficial actions, the most effective approach to achieve the goal of improving hand-off communication is by implementing a standardized tool like the SHARE model.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving nutrition education. Which nutrition information should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals.
• B. Rest before meals if you have dyspnea.
• C. Have about six small meals a day.
• D. Eat high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding drinking fluids just before and during meals helps prevent bloating in clients with COPD. Resting before meals if experiencing dyspnea can aid in improving breathing during meals. Having approximately six small meals a day can reduce bloating and help with easier digestion. However, consuming high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying is not advisable for clients with COPD, as fibrous foods can lead to gas production, abdominal bloating, and increased shortness of breath. Clients with COPD should focus on increasing calorie and protein intake to prevent malnourishment. Increasing carbohydrate intake should also be avoided, as it can raise carbon dioxide production and worsen dyspnea.

3. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Heart rate of 122/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

4. A client is planning to perform nasotracheal suction for a client who has COPD and an artificial airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Perform suctioning for up to four passes.
• B. Apply suction to the catheter when advancing it into the trachea.
• C. Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min.
• D. Limit each suction pass to 25 seconds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

5. A client with a mediastinal chest tube is being assessed by a nurse. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (SATA)

• A. Production of pink sputum
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain at insertion site
• D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Immediate intervention is necessary when a client with a mediastinal chest tube exhibits tracheal deviation since it may indicate a tension pneumothorax. This condition requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications. While the production of pink sputum and pain at the insertion site should be monitored and reported, they do not typically require immediate intervention. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues related to the chest tube but is not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.

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