Nursing Elites

1. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
• B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
• C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
• D. Monitor the client for headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.

2. A client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should be included?

• A. Increase intake of caffeinated beverages.
• B. Engage in weight-bearing exercises regularly.
• C. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
• D. Take calcium supplements with iron.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in weight-bearing exercises is crucial for individuals with osteoporosis as it helps strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Weight-bearing exercises include activities like walking, jogging, dancing, and strength training. These exercises help improve bone density and overall bone health, making them an essential component of lifestyle modifications for individuals with osteoporosis.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has postoperative atelectasis and is hypoxic. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Bradypnea
• C. Lethargy
• D. Intercostal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative atelectasis can lead to hypoxia, which causes respiratory distress. Intercostal retractions, where the muscles between the ribs pull inward during inspiration, are a common sign of respiratory distress in a client with atelectasis. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), Bradypnea (slow breathing rate), and lethargy are not typically associated with atelectasis and hypoxia.

4. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
• B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
• C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
• D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.

5. During an assessment of the respiratory pattern of an older adult client receiving end-of-life care, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

• A. Breathing ranging from very deep to very shallow with periods of apnea
• B. Shallow to normal breaths alternating with periods of apnea
• C. Rapid respirations that are unusually deep and regular
• D. An inability to breathe without dyspnea unless sitting upright

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by a pattern of breathing that ranges from very deep to very shallow with periods of apnea (temporary cessation of breathing). This pattern is often seen in clients near the end of life or with certain medical conditions affecting the respiratory control center in the brain. The alternating deep and shallow breaths can be distressing for both the client and caregivers. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this pattern to provide appropriate care and support to the client and their family during this challenging time.

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